Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hola Team Kwiziq,

Is it incorrect to place the No in a  No...nunca construction before the pronoun? I notice that one can say "No comes chocolate nunca" which made me believe that the no is always at the beginning of the sentence.

However "No nostotros te mentiríamos nunca" was incorrect and so was "No él estuvo intersesado".  I am guessing that no can be in front of a verb where the pronoun is implied (comes) but not in front of an  explicit subject pronoun (tú comes). Is this correct? Can you elaborate?

I love reading and listening to the travel stories, or diaries.  These 3 audios are perfect examples. 
Even though we can google all the needed information, it´ll be even greater if some culture insights or backgrounds can be included in the introduction to these lessons, especially when talking about local cuisines.  

Question about ¡Qué delicioso! 
 in the text, the mochilero had eaten all the food in feminine forms, such as arroz, trucha frita, yuca y salsa. 
Shouldn't it be 
¡Qué deliciosa! instead?

The phrase "not be much for" is more idiomatic and translates to "not enjoy" or "not be in the habit of". I have never heard it used in the positive, however. You might say "He's not much for taking walks" to mean "He doesn't enjoy taking walks".  However, I have never heard something like "He's much for taking walks". There's a positive version that's a bit more enthusiastic: "to be a great one for".  For example, "He's a great one for playing practical jokes".

Hi, Kwiziq has dropped a lesson when to use pretérito indefinido vs  simple perfect into my lesson plan which is headed ‘for South American learners’.  It identifies me correctly as learning Iberian Spanish. I don’t want to get confused with SA grammar. How can I remove it please?

Should la mayoría be followed by son? La mayoría isnt plural.

I answered this as "estan pidiendo"

But the exam says the right answer is "piden". 

Isn't "estan pidiendo" more accurate answer?