Spanish language Q&A Forum

"Le hemos explicado a ella el problema." Seems redundant. Is it a special case, or a constant rule?

Why we use here word "tenía" and not "tuve" when we talking about ayer?

I saw this in an article on the BBC about direct and indirect object pronouns.

Escuchamos al cantante.

Le escuchamos.

Is that corrrct? I don’t get why we'd use the indirect object pronoun here. What is the direct object in this case?

I am confused by when to use éstas with a tilde and when not to.  And would this sentence work without using either?  Just saying ...zonas de ocio sino que también permiten a la población...

Hola

¡Lo que charla tu madre! 

y

¡Cuánto charla tu madre! 

estas frases son intercambiables? significan más o menos lo mismo?

(no importa, veo que esta pregunta ya ha sido hecha)

Could a correct translation option also be "En la madrugada"?

Hello!  Por or para: the eternal question, right?  I'm wondering about the phrase "for future generations" in the final sentence.  If that phrase were interpreted as "for the benefit of future generations" or "for the sake of future generations," would "por" be correct?  Or is "para" the only correct option regardless?  Thank you!