Spanish language Q&A Forum

__________ mucho esta noche.

I answered: "He bebido"

I answered this because:

"The use of El Pretérito Perfecto in Latin America depends on regional variations but in general we can say it's restricted to actions started in the past that continue in the present or are not finished, or recent past actions the speaker wants to emphasise." 

"I drank a lot tonight" seems like a recent past action...

What am I failing to understand here?

There's also this part:

"However, in general most Latin American Spanish speakers don't really observe this difference between El Pretérito Indefinido and El Pretérito Perfecto. Most of Latin America tends to just use El Pretérito Indefinido, while in the Andean region speakers tend to just use El Pretérito Perfecto."

So... I have two contradictory sets of information given to me... which one do I use?

what differences are there between the 2?

It seems as if we can think of "lo" as "that," as in, "That I don't know" for "no lo se." This seems to fit with all the examples above.

Could you please explain why "un albornoz" is used when we are talking in plural saying "los modelos".  Both of them did not put on the same bath robe to use un albornoz in singular. Thank you

"Encuentra a Andrew atractivo." Sounds funny to me, but I'm not a native speaker.

I got a little stumped on this one, but I wrote "Ella piensa que es atractivo (or would it be "sea" because of pensar?)

Hello Kwiziq team .

I have a question concerning the use of the subjunctive mood.

1. No porque sea gratis significa que me lo vaya a comer todo 

2. No porque sea gratis me lo voy a comer todo.

Are both phrases correct ? What is the nuance when you opt to use the subjunctive or the indicative mood.

Thank you in advance. Your answers are always helpful in solving our grammatical doubts  

Shout-out to María Virginia for her superbly enunciated reading!