Repeated “a”, and “dativo de interés”(1) In this sentence the personal “a” is repeated: “ A Pedro y a Pablo les cantaron una canción por su despedida”.
However in this sentence the second “a” is omitted: “ (Les) cantaron una canción a Pedro y Pablo por su despedida.”
Is the second “a” arbitrary or is there a rule for when to omit it?
(2) I notice two uses of IO pronouns in the examples and questions.
The first is the common usage such as giving something to someone, saying something to someone, or taking something from someone. This usage always has a direct object.
The second usage is from a lesson from a higher level, called the “dativo de interés”, which has an entirely different meaning altogether. Instead of always having a DO and giving the DO to someone, there may not be a directobject at all (intransitive verbs), and the IO simply emphasizes that someone is affected by the action.
Sometimes there is a DO: Mi hija pequeña no me come nada.
and sometimes there is not: Ayer nos cayó un buen chaparrón.
Inma’s answer to Thea reflects this type of usage.
Spanish dativo de interés - specific use of Spanish indirect object pronouns
So there are different layers to the usage of the IO.
Could you make a lesson contrasting the different types of IO usage? It could be useful for many of us.
(1) In this sentence the personal “a” is repeated: “ A Pedro y a Pablo les cantaron una canción por su despedida”.
However in this sentence the second “a” is omitted: “ (Les) cantaron una canción a Pedro y Pablo por su despedida.”
Is the second “a” arbitrary or is there a rule for when to omit it?
(2) I notice two uses of IO pronouns in the examples and questions.
The first is the common usage such as giving something to someone, saying something to someone, or taking something from someone. This usage always has a direct object.
The second usage is from a lesson from a higher level, called the “dativo de interés”, which has an entirely different meaning altogether. Instead of always having a DO and giving the DO to someone, there may not be a directobject at all (intransitive verbs), and the IO simply emphasizes that someone is affected by the action.
Sometimes there is a DO: Mi hija pequeña no me come nada.
and sometimes there is not: Ayer nos cayó un buen chaparrón.
Inma’s answer to Thea reflects this type of usage.
Spanish dativo de interés - specific use of Spanish indirect object pronouns
So there are different layers to the usage of the IO.
Could you make a lesson contrasting the different types of IO usage? It could be useful for many of us.
My question is not about the answer per se... but the phrase {si yo necesitara ir al trabajo}... what is the verb tense or form for necesitara? I am thinking it was future of necesitar but that would have á vs a in the ending. Also the phrase will be will need to go to work. Thanks.
Why was "partido" (for "game") the correct usage in the first part of the last sentence, but then "juego" (for "game") was correct in the latter part of that same sentence?
Pati Ecuamiga
I missed “que” in my comment below. Shirley.
1. I notice that in the headings of this subject, the "de" is placed in parentheses and that while most of the examples keep the "de", a couple don't, that is only "antes que" is used. Can you explain why this is so? Is there a grammatical reason or rule?
2. Is there a subtle, nuanced difference between "Despues de que" and "Luego de que", or are they completely interchangeable regarding meaning and use?
3. Is the tense of the subjunctive verb in the subordinate clause (i.e., presente de subjuntivo vs. pretérito imperfecto subjuntivo) determined by the indicative tense in the main clause?
In the quiz, the sentence was "When I go to Spain, I always go to the beach". - "___________ voy a Espana, siempre voy a la playa"
The answer is "Cuando" without an accent. In the lesson, it says that cuando without an accent is a relative adverb which introduces a depennt clause. In the above example, what is the dependent clause that "cuando" is introducing? I am not a gramarian, but it seems like both of the above clauses are independent. That may be incorrect, but could you please explain?
When I'm requested to answer a question including the word 'you' as in 'do you like...?' it doesn't specify whether you are asking one person or more than one. I have answered for one person and the answer has been the plural answer so it says I'm wrong.
La vida con Roberto probablemente se volvería muy aburrida, muy rápidamente, mientras que la vida con el bohemio sería un perpetuo juego de adivinanzas. Ella debería seguir buscando.
In a 10-question test these was the question:
¿Por qué lo ________ ?
Why are you cursing him?
I expected the answer would be a gerund, but it was not. Why was "cursing" used and not "curse?" As in, "Why (do) you curse him?"
I don't seem to be getting this lesson. I freely admit there are things above my head. When I just don't get it, I want to move on to other things (to stay motivated) hoping sometime in the future I'll get it then. Sadly, I am stuck on a subject that I won't even use much as a beginner. I'd like to skip it. Just my opinion. Thanks.
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