I don't get it__________ mucho esta noche.
I answered: "He bebido"
I answered this because:
"The use of El Pretérito Perfecto in Latin America depends on regional variations but in general we can say it's restricted to actions started in the past that continue in the present or are not finished, or recent past actions the speaker wants to emphasise."
"I drank a lot tonight" seems like a recent past action...
What am I failing to understand here?
There's also this part:
"However, in general most Latin American Spanish speakers don't really observe this difference between El Pretérito Indefinido and El Pretérito Perfecto. Most of Latin America tends to just use El Pretérito Indefinido, while in the Andean region speakers tend to just use El Pretérito Perfecto."
So... I have two contradictory sets of information given to me... which one do I use?
What is Tengo's exact meaning.
The test question is:
She feels that she is not progressing much at work.The answer is siente. This doesn't seem correct because:1. it is not followed by a noun
2. It describes a complex subjective feeling
Just want to draw attention to my unanswered question below.
I think at first boyfriend. ... lol both muy and mucha in same sentence. I like that.
Some of the phrases sound like commands, why not use the imperative mood as opposed to subjunctive?
Some examples use the verb “estar”. But can we ever use “ser”? Ex: “Mis primos fueron aburridos hasta que viajaron a españa.” Thanks.
If isimo or ito or mente is used can either be used for these words as a suffixes.
If any one can inform
What about "llegar a ser" and "tranformarse"? I would like to know the correct usage of these. Thank you.
__________ mucho esta noche.
I answered: "He bebido"
I answered this because:
"The use of El Pretérito Perfecto in Latin America depends on regional variations but in general we can say it's restricted to actions started in the past that continue in the present or are not finished, or recent past actions the speaker wants to emphasise."
"I drank a lot tonight" seems like a recent past action...
What am I failing to understand here?
There's also this part:
"However, in general most Latin American Spanish speakers don't really observe this difference between El Pretérito Indefinido and El Pretérito Perfecto. Most of Latin America tends to just use El Pretérito Indefinido, while in the Andean region speakers tend to just use El Pretérito Perfecto."
So... I have two contradictory sets of information given to me... which one do I use?
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