'de la quien' is correct... but 'de que' isn't?Hola Inma
In this test question:
"Aquella chica del colegio, ________ todos se reían, estaba siempre triste"
I managed to get all these correct: de la que, de quien, de la cual. But my answer de que was incorrect.
OK, I admit that I did follow a pattern here and guess that this question required 'de' in front of the pronoun, so I actually have two questions about this:
1) why is 'de' required in this particular structure (but not usually)?
2) why is 'de que' incorrect? (but all the others require 'de')
I ask because I don't see any reference to these nuances in the above lesson
Saludos
Hello,
En él puedes percibir
I assume this translates to 'In it you can perceive'. I did not know that 'él' can be use for 'it'.
Thanks
Amrutha
Another explanation I have seen tells that when the pronoun is part of a phrase within brackets we should be using el que etc rather than just que. I have fed the sentence into the respected SpanishChecker with both alternatives and neither was identified as wrong.
Why "a" El Cortes..." and not ..en?
El médico quiere que me tome estas pastillas.
Voy a pedirle que me lleve a su casa.
Is the rule for the position of the Me in both sentences that there are two clauses, the second being subjunctive and the verb reflexive therefore owning the M1e? I was confused because both the first and second verbs are conjugated.
Hola Inma
In this test question:
"Aquella chica del colegio, ________ todos se reían, estaba siempre triste"
I managed to get all these correct: de la que, de quien, de la cual. But my answer de que was incorrect.
OK, I admit that I did follow a pattern here and guess that this question required 'de' in front of the pronoun, so I actually have two questions about this:
1) why is 'de' required in this particular structure (but not usually)?
2) why is 'de que' incorrect? (but all the others require 'de')
I ask because I don't see any reference to these nuances in the above lesson
Saludos
In the beginning of the story, using present perfect was clear because she is saying that her best friend has come to visit. Afterwards, when she is narrating what they did each day, we have specific time (the day mentioned) and what they did which to me seems to be how we use preterite for a specific time (day) in the past, so it is confusing to see present perfect for specific time events in the past. Can you please explain why you continued to use pr. perfect and did not switch to another tense. To me (the "has come" in the beginning) would have been more appropriate with what they are going to do in the future since she mentions that "they have made tons on plans."
The example sentence:
"En esta tienda pueden comprarse unas joyas muy bonitas."
The translation is given is
"You can buy very nice jewels in this shop."
However could it also be translated as:
"They can buy themselves some very nice jewels in this shop."
if we interpret the se as being an indirect object rather than passive?
Hola
I am having difficulty understanding when an answer is simply incorrect and you wouldn't say it in Spanish, and when the answer given is not what Kwiz expects to see. For example, I wrote 'Cuando fine la leccion' (I can't find the accent!) and it was marked incorrect. Would it be incorrect to say that in conversation with a Spanish speaker?
Many thanks
Trefor
I would think that because people hang curtains inside, it would be logical to use “rincón” instead of “esquina”.
Is there a comprehensive rule for when to use (or not use) PARA before an infinitive? I sometimes encounter examples where para is used without the sense of "purpose" that is supposed to trigger the use of "para." In other words, I can't use the rule "in order to" to translate these sentences.
Cuándo estaba en Australia, tenía muchos problemas para hablar inglés.
Tuvimos muchas dificultades para encontrar la parada de autobús.
Fue un día demasiado bueno para quedarse adentro.
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