Spanish language Q&A Forum

Why is the usage of nosotros as above been marked wrong

Is there any advice to practice the rythm of spanish?

Él habría abierto la puerta.He would have opened the door.The speaker really says Habriabierto. 
I think spanish should be taught this way but then how would that work?

I never heard a sentence with yendo till now. Could you make a list of different sentences in relation to the pronouns?

__________ mucho esta noche.

I answered: "He bebido"

I answered this because:

"The use of El Pretérito Perfecto in Latin America depends on regional variations but in general we can say it's restricted to actions started in the past that continue in the present or are not finished, or recent past actions the speaker wants to emphasise." 

"I drank a lot tonight" seems like a recent past action...

What am I failing to understand here?

There's also this part:

"However, in general most Latin American Spanish speakers don't really observe this difference between El Pretérito Indefinido and El Pretérito Perfecto. Most of Latin America tends to just use El Pretérito Indefinido, while in the Andean region speakers tend to just use El Pretérito Perfecto."

So... I have two contradictory sets of information given to me... which one do I use?

In the section about no porque you say: "if the causal subordinate clause is negative, it allows both the indicative and the subjunctive (without changing the meaning)."

A says that no porque must be used with the subjunctive according to the Cervantes Institute, and you (Inma) seem to agree with him, saying: "with no porque you use the subjunctive."

I just did a Kwiz where "no porque era" was a correct option.

So, what is going on there? Can no porque take both the subjunctive and the indicative or just the subjunctive?

The test question is: