Spanish language Q&A Forum

How might a speaker differentiate an inquiry of How is X? from What is X like?  (Context is usually enough, but both questions are common so it'd be nice to know.)

Does “¿Dónde estarán?” mean both “where will they be?” and “where might they be?” ?

I would think there would be different ways to express the two different meanings in Spanish.

At the moment, the availabilty of these homes is very limited is translated as:

Por el momento, la disponibilidad de estas viviendas es muy reducida

Why isn't estar used here because at the moment surely implies that the situation is a temporary state?

Gracias

Would it be "Ella estuvo" here if we add a specific time like "Ella estuvo lavándose el pelo de 8 a la 8:30" ?

Also, we would appreciate the El indefinido progresivo examples with all pronouns as just having 3 is not enough to remember the conjugations.

Hello, why is the imperfect used in this sentence since knocking on the door is a single event?  Why not "fuimos" ?

Eramos nosotros los quien llamamos a la puerta

sorry about the accents

Juan trajo unas flores a Ana.
Juan brought Ana some flowers.

Juan le trajo unas flores.
Juan brought her some flowers. (To whom? To Ana).

Why is le used instead of se.    Se means her

Le duele la pierna.

His/her/your leg hurts.     here you use le for her too.   is other place wrong?

I went and got link.  Pronombre de complemento indirecto: Pronoun Type. How to use Pronombre de complemento indirecto in Spanish (kwiziq.com)

If the interrogative needs cuándo then: ¿Dice la pantalla  cuándo aterriza el avión?

But for a non-question: La pantalla no dice cuando aterriza el avión.

yet the Kwiziq answer is: La pantalla no dice cuándo aterriza el avión. 

HELP? por favor . . .

In this exercise the preterit 3rd person singular of "creer" is shown as "crió" whereas in my other Spanish dictionaries it is shown as "creció". Is the former conjugation specific to Latin America whilst the latter (creció) is specific to Spain?

“I am confused when " preterito " is appended to most of the tenses. This practice is not widely used in Spain or Latin countries. Why not use the tenses which are commonly used. I know that the preterite is used for past tense so when preterito perfecto subjuntivo is mentioned I expect that the past subjunctive is meant NOT the perfect subjunctive! I wonder whether other participants experience the same problem.“  In school, we never learned the English equivalents of these various subjunctive terms.  We didn’t really learn much about the subjunctive in English at all.  It was a whole new concept beginning to learn it in Spanish.  How is it taught to Spanish speaking children? Do they find it confusing?

In "ellos consiguen borrar los malos pensamientos de su cabeza," why is it not "de sus cabezas" since we said "ellos"?