Spanish language Q&A Forum

Inma's answer below on time clauses and manner clauses got my attention and I looked at other web sites to learn about the types of adverbial clauses.  This is a rich topic with lots to explore.  It would be great if you could do a lesson on Kwiziq on  the types of adverbial clauses.

Que son los deportes officiales en paraguay?

Was the Collection of verses published when the poet was 19 or just that one poem? Slightly ambiguous English phrasing  . . .

My neighbours enjoy playing music really loudly.

"with verbs like gustar"
https://spanish.kwiziq.com/learn/theme/707648

Nowhere in there does it list "divertir"
I'm unclear on why it wasn't divierten like it would have been "disfrutan"

I am confused about the translation for a section of this exercise. That section is:  "I like King Baltazar". For this, I wrote "A mí me gusta al Rey Baltasar", but the corrected answer/translation was presented as "A mí me gusta el rey Baltasar". I thought the preposition "a" needed to be inserted after use of gusta if the reference was to a person (in this case "rey Baltasar" --- lower case in "rey" notwithstanding). Apparently, I am wrong. Could you please explain why "el" and not "al" was correct?

Pati Ecuamiga

Hola,

Thank you for this lesson. I understand that ningun is used before a noun: 

"No tengo ningun dinero para ir de compras hoy.";

"Ningun estudiante hizo la tarea."

My confusion is when concerning when to use "ningun" vs  "ninguno"? 

Saludos

If  isimo  or ito or mente   is used  can either be used for these words as a suffixes.  

If any one can inform 

If the presence of “a” after a verb means it is “Ir” a not “ser”, Then why is  “yo fui de fiesta an Ibiza” also conjugated “as ir?” The verb is not followed by “a”. Only the noun is followed by a. So why is it “I went,” and not “I was at”?

I find this very confusing. Does the rule apply to a and de alike ?

I see here that querer does not have an accent for the first person preterito indefinido: quise, whereas some verbs have one, like compré - is there a rule that I can apply to distinguish it, or is it just because querer is irregular?

Thanks

Why is estaba used in the sentence-

Después del baño, estaba muy calmado y feliz. 

Why not era. Is it because describing feeling in the past?