Spanish language Q&A Forum

Are these correct?

A ti te gusta la historia y la fisica.

A mi me gusta el tenis y el futbol.

if the main clause is in future tense, do we use subjunctive too?

Estudiaré más dúro para que mis padres me traigan al extranjero

I will study harder so that my parents will bring me overseas

with NOUNs the mas or menos is before the noun.

with verbs They are after the conjugated verb.

when used as a pronoun is after the noun it talking about.   Has words in front of it

and their might be a name for those sorts of words.

so the question are these kinda "rules"

A story I had a teacher and first words the son said was   "mas" talking about food.

I would like to ask exactly the same question as Benhur

Nope.  No real instruction can convey with clarity how to use the different past tenses in Spanish.  This is just another attempt here to try and make it "clear."  it is not.  

Spanish fluency was a goal of mine, but really not so much any longer.  Basically, because no one can really "instruct" on how to learn the language.  The only way to learn it is to revert to "infancy" and just hear it spoken.  So, move to a Spanish-speaking country or region and pick up what you can.  Most disheartening thing I have ever attempted to do is learning Spanish.

I should’ve said  “Podía ver.. vs veía, do they mean the same thing. Gracias, Shirley. 

One of the options for a mini kwiz question, ""Suspendió el examen, no porque ________ sino porque ese día no se sentía bien." As I understood it, no porque could be used with either subjunctive or indicative and not change the meaning. Why isn't "no porque no iba a estudiar" an option along with the other two examples (which were subjunctive).

Since The main differences between ser and estar include that ser is used for permanent qualities, like your name, your place of origin, and your physical appearance, while estar is used to talk about temporary situations, such as how you’re feeling right now or your location.

So why is SER used in this sentence:  Tú eras muy bueno.  - the person that you are talking to is not always good so it is not a permant state.

Ditto in the following sentence.  You are not always rich so why use SER in the following:  Vosotros erais ricos.

The note says quedarse can be used as emphasis of end results. So does that mean ‘se queda inmóvil’ meaning he ended up motionless ? Or is this meaning of quedarse different ?