Spanish language Q&A Forum

Just to clarify if I fully understand this lesson, would these 2 sentences be correct?: 

1. Roberto, cuyas hijas van al colegio de mi hija, es abogado. 

2. Tus padres, cuya casa actual es tan grande para sus necesidades, quieren una casa menos espaciosa.  

Many thanks for helping me get my head around this. Saludos ~Oscar   

it seems like luego de is the only difference between LA and Europe spainish?

Hello, I'm slightly confused with the following:

As you can see from the previous examples, when we use deber with this nuance of assumption/wondering, we can optionally use the preposition "de" after deber.

So you are saying that "de" is truly optional and has the same meaning whether "de" is used or not?

Thank you,
Dave

In the listening exercise is the phrase "para que la casa esté fresquita."

On the Futuro simple page (https://spanish.kwiziq.com/revision/glossary/verb-tense-mood/futuro-simple) I couldn't find any page for "estar" in the future tense.

Is "esté" the 1st person singular of estar in futuro simple?
Or does it come from a different word?

In the same way that galesa in the first example is equivalent to "Welsh," perhaps Esta torera es cordobesa is more equivalent to "This bullfighter (female) is Cordoban." 

Correct me if I am wrong. “La alpaca es in animal de la familia de la llama y de los camellos” means “The alpaca is an animal from the family of camels”. May you clarify why it’s mentioned “de la llama”? Can we write just “la alpaca es un animal de la familia de los camellos”? 

Would "no ha" be better thought of as "has not" instead of "didn't?" I don't know what the grammatical difference is between the two, or if one exists.