Spanish language Q&A Forum

When talking about past actions we can also use it with the subjunctive, but this makes it sound more formal.

I was just watching "¿Quién mato a Sara?"  (takes place in Mexico) where a security guard in a parking lot tells a character waiting in his car to meet with someone  "Estamos por cerrar". The English subtitles render it as something like "We're about to close."

Would saying "estamos para cerrar" also make sense in this context? Would the meaning be different, and if so how? Is it a regional/dialect thing? Does the nuance have to do with the implication of intent, as was generalized in another post, or is it more complex...?

I'm confused by this pair of expressions... they seem like they want to be different and yet the meanings seem confusingly close... I know language isn't always logical, but I'm just trying to get a feel for it. Thank you in advance...

please help me understand why we use tengo/tiene and not estoy-soy.

I have noticed that the word “video” is pronounced differently in Spain and Latin America.  In Latin America, the word is pronounced as 3 syllables and the accent is on the “e” (2nd or middle syllable).  In contrast, in Spain the word seems to be pronounced with the accent on the “i” (1st syllable) and it seems like the word may only have 2 syllables in the peninsular pronunciation (with the “eo” pronounced as a one syllable diphthong).  Is this correct, and if not, what is going on here?

Why is it "las puertas y ventanas" and not "las puertas y las ventanas"?  Usually Spanish seems to have two definite articles where English has only one.

Why does my lesson include 'vosotros'/'sois'and other lessons from European Spanish.  I am trying to learn Latin Spanish and have set my account to Latin Spanish.  This is very confusing if you actually try to teach me a different language to the one that I chose.