Spanish language Q&A Forum

Thank you for clarifying that this expression functions similar to the verb gustar.  I believe that the gustar structure is sometimes used with 3rd person plural, such as "Me gustan las películas."  Is there ever a time that "dar a alguien por algo" is used with 3rd person plural when followed by a plural noun?  For example, if I wanted to say "Now that my friend has retired, she has taken up new hobbies," would I still say, "Ahora que mi amiga se ha jubilado, le ha dado pasatiempos nuevos"?  Thank you!

And all this time, going through 1, 2 and 3, I thought the lifeguard was a girl! Inma, you need to speak a little more gruffly, please LOL

The difference between an "event still to happen" and one that "will happen" can be determined only by the ability to predict the future. It is not a grammatical issue. So neither the indicative nor subjunctive choice is grammatically incorrect. It's a semantic difference, not a grammatical one. I've seen you make very different choices -- different from what I thought was meant. 

can you live in the Andes Mountains?

…but I’ve just realised why I get confused about when to use the subjunctive after ‘no sé que…’ (‘I don’t know that…’) or ‘no sé qué…’ (‘I don’t know which/what…’), now I realise that I should use the subjunctive in the first case and not in the second. Thank you! 

NOT OK Por favor Marta, les trae unas copas de vino.

but it is wrong. Why this below is correct answer? I though the "les" can be put in front of verb and behind.

 OK Por favor Marta, tráeles unas copas de vino.

So cnfusing and it's just B1 😢

with NOUNs the mas or menos is before the noun.

with verbs They are after the conjugated verb.

when used as a pronoun is after the noun it talking about.   Has words in front of it

and their might be a name for those sorts of words.

so the question are these kinda "rules"

A story I had a teacher and first words the son said was   "mas" talking about food.

When is one preferred over the other?

I know the -- if after a noun is doesn't make since with " which or that,"  then use " de que" if you intend it to be " that"

But like what about the other times?

I swear it almost seems like other than what I said above, it's interchangeable.

Thanks.

I would like to ask exactly the same question as Benhur