Request for explanation of use of definite articlesI'm having trouble understanding circumstances when I need to insert definite articles (i.e., los, las, etc.) when translating a phrase in English that does not include the articles. Below is an example of what I'm referring to from this translation exercise:
[English sentence] "However, it is important for governments, companies and people to work together ..."
[Kwiziq Spanish translation] "No obstante, es importante que los gobiernos, las empresas, y las personas trabajen juntos..."
Why was it necessary to insert the definite articles "los" and "las"? I notice that sometimes they are included in the Kwiziq translations, and sometimes they are not. Please explain the grammatical rules that govern use of definite articles in such circumstances.
Thank you,
Pati Ecuamiga
under the dictation, a part of the sentence says
Y nos invitaban a todos a una ceremonia y una fiesta, en una estación de esquí la Navidad próxima.
i understand that nos invitaban = they invited us
nos invitaban a una fiesta = they invited us to a party
but what does a todos means?
ayudame por favor
muchas gracias
Regarding this quiz question:
Tengo estos dos pares de botas, ¿________prefieres?
The answer is “cuáles” which means that “par” is plural, and not singular as in English. Is this correct? In general, when do we think of groups as plural?
Also, how does this affect general usage? Do we say, “los par son bonitos”? Thanks.
Perhaps it would be helpful with these various stem changing verb lessons to explain more clearly that the vowel changes only affect the vowels when they are in syllables that are stressed, rather than giving the impression that the nosotros/as and vosotras/os forms are just arbitrary exceptions. I think that grasping that makes it a lot easier to internalize the pattern than just trying to memorize exceptions without understanding why they work that way.
¿Podría ser correcto usar ambas verbos en el pretérito indefinido para decir algo diferente?
Por ejemplo "cuando vine a casa, ví el nuevo coche" en vez de "cuando venía a casa, ví el nuevo coche", para decir que lo ví inmediatamente después de que hubiera llegado (una acción cumplida, no interrumpida).
Eso me parecería lógico y algo similar sí se puede usar en inglés, pero ¿tiene sentido o es correcto en Español, o hay una forma distinta de decir algo así?
Espero que lo haya explicado suficiente claro... Muchas gracias.
Hi, I have to write an essay in Spanish about my personal life how do I say "MMA fighter" in Spanish would it "peleador de la MMA"which is what I have been taught or "luchador de la MMA" and what is the difference (I need European Spanish if that makes a difference)
I'm having trouble understanding circumstances when I need to insert definite articles (i.e., los, las, etc.) when translating a phrase in English that does not include the articles. Below is an example of what I'm referring to from this translation exercise:
[English sentence] "However, it is important for governments, companies and people to work together ..."
[Kwiziq Spanish translation] "No obstante, es importante que los gobiernos, las empresas, y las personas trabajen juntos..."
Why was it necessary to insert the definite articles "los" and "las"? I notice that sometimes they are included in the Kwiziq translations, and sometimes they are not. Please explain the grammatical rules that govern use of definite articles in such circumstances.
Thank you,
Pati Ecuamiga
I just wanted to add that it seems like a similar thing IS actually done in colloquial English in certain rare cases and the form and nuance is very similar--eg "they say it's tricky to learn" where the "they" is someone unspecified or people in general and not particularly relevant. (In more formal English, other ways of expressing the idea would sound less "colloquial", but it would sound very normal in conversation.) But what I'm seeing is that in Spanish this has much broader use, and is quite natural in many cases where in english you'd have to use a passive construction (or another pronoun instead to keep the impersonal sense)--eg, "He was robbed," or maybe "someone robbed him", but not "they robbed him" because in English that implies subjects already mentioned or known and wouldn't sound impersonal (at least, not in any dialect I've encountered). Yet helpfully, the Spanish form isn't TOTALLY alien to an English speaker, just a lot more freely used. Gee, isn't language fun?! 🙃
Isn't it the same topic as "Gerundio"?
Hi, the Spanish word for “for” is missing. Thanks, Shirley.
Nope. No real instruction can convey with clarity how to use the different past tenses in Spanish. This is just another attempt here to try and make it "clear." it is not.
Spanish fluency was a goal of mine, but really not so much any longer. Basically, because no one can really "instruct" on how to learn the language. The only way to learn it is to revert to "infancy" and just hear it spoken. So, move to a Spanish-speaking country or region and pick up what you can. Most disheartening thing I have ever attempted to do is learning Spanish.
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