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6,017 questions • 9,834 answers • 1,014,200 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,017 questions • 9,834 answers • 1,014,200 learners
¡Hola! Tengo una preguntita...
Why do we use "es sabroso" here when in other exercises we've opted for "está rico/delicioso etc", which seems to be a similar idea?
¡Muchas gracias!
It's not quite true that English has only two demonstratives - there's an older word still in common use at least in the North of England, usefully equivalent to 'aquel':
https://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/yonder
It's in wider use in the phrase 'wild blue yonder'
There's a link to 'idioms about time' but there isn't anything to learn or do on that page. Is there a link that works for that subject?
…but I’ve just realised why I get confused about when to use the subjunctive after ‘no sé que…’ (‘I don’t know that…’) or ‘no sé qué…’ (‘I don’t know which/what…’), now I realise that I should use the subjunctive in the first case and not in the second. Thank you!
Can you clarify rules please. I thought cuando + subjunctive was used for something that would happen therefore you needed a future tense or an imperative and not a continuous present as in estamos ahorrandothanks julie
Good lesson. I like this concept of partitives.
Can we use "uno de" in place of "alguno de" to mean "one of"? Or is "alguno" only used in this context in Spanish?
Also, is there a list of partitives that use "de", such as "cada uno de" or "pocos de"?
Thanks!
I put le invité. Is that also correct?
Voy para la casa de mi amigo. Is the use of para in this case particular to Spain? IN Mexico and New Mexico(where I live) I'm pretty sure the sentence would use the prepossition "a" as in Voy a la piscina.
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