Spanish language Q&A Forum

Why is "pasar" shown to mean "have" when English speakers just as often say "to spend?" Wouldn't it be truer to the Spanish to say it means "to spend?" Also, that will help me learn the actual meaning of "pasar." To say it means "have" I would think may sow some confusion. 

Por que "la montaña"' en ingles "the mountains" Should be las montañas?

I am finding the use of the verb Hay in tenses other Present Indicative confusing. Is it because the verb retains its multi purpose use of meaning? I mean, "hay" means both "there is" and "there are" in the Present Indicative, and "hubo" means "there was" and "there were", even though the following noun is plural? Also, after "si" when is "hubo" used in preference to "hubiera"?

Clearly spoken and a nice addition to vocabulary but what is the significance of the two girls from Guadalupe? Is Guadalupe Victoria DUR the home town of Daniela?

The rule seems to be inconsistent. 

According to my research, double checking, regular would be «Yo envio.» But there needs to be an accent over the i > «Yo envío.» And other conjugations have the accented "I". And so it is not a regular "-ar" verb.

Could you please clarify the statement "They replace the -z with a -c in all forms. This is because after z  you can only have the vowels a, o and u."
1. The word "zeta" appears to disprove this statement so is there a further qualification to the rule that's missing?

2. Why can those letters not follow "z"?

Gracias!