Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hola,

¿Por qué se usa "la" aquí en esta frase, se refiere a doña Berta? ¿Por qué "la" en vez de "le"?

"Espere, doña Berta. Yo la ayudo con las bolsas."

¡Muchas gracias!

I think this lesson should be in a C1 category as it is very subtle. I just cannot see the difference in the  meaning of the first two sentences,,,,estoy&esté. Maybe you could provide better examples or explanations on this point of grammar

I currently am focusing on Latin American Spanish, specifically Mexican Spanish / Californian. What are the differences in vocabulary?

The phrase: y así devolver a esas personas un poco de su ayuda en el pasado.

I can't figure out from the literal tx whether the "de" should be "por":

y así devolver a esas personas un poco por su ayuda en el pasado.

If the intent is thank the older generation for their past help, surely "por" is more appropriate, no? Or does "de" somehow imply "for"?

As an extremely well-educated native North American speaker trying to learn Latin American Spanish, I find the semantics in this lesson frustrating. This is punctuated by all the comments seen here. There is insufficient context provided. For example (ignoring the hint since hints aren't given in real life), one of the quiz questions asks to translate: "They are having ice cream." I would immediately think "Están tomando helado." - or perhaps "desfrutando" given some of the loose lesson translations. However, to think: "Van a tomar helado." I need further context. For example: "They are having ice cream this afternoon." - "Van a tomar helado esta tarde." Otherwise in English you are much less ambivalent saying: "They are going to have ice cream." I understand both sides of the arguments and I fall more on the side of "They are going to have," but a better solution is to provide a more complete explanation and context in the lesson, after all, it is more common to say "They are going to have." Concede that we use the exact same literal expression in both Spanish and English but then take it further in the lesson to explain the nuanced differences in English thought compared to Spanish thought. 

La vendimia comienza en el antiguo Egipto. Por qué no el pretérito comenzó?

Hola Inma,

why the personal "a" is omitted here? - representar a las mujeres 

Saludos

Ελισάβετ

Hi Inma,

I know that the answer for;

No voy a ir a esa fiesta, por si acaso ________ con David

is 'me encontrara' (not 'me encuentre') because it is subjunctive imperfect but is the future subjunctive not used in this case because the sentence is conditional?

Thank you

If I understand this correctly,(always a big "if") I think you should make reference to any irregularities in the ending.  E.g., first person singular ends in "e" and third person has no accent.  Maybe there are others.

The sentence was "watch one of his movies" . I used "mira". The software Use "ve".  Give me a break!!