Spanish language Q&A Forum

Do I understand correctly that both tenses are possible? If so, is there a difference in meaning or are they interchangeable?

In the example below, why is it 'aprovechó' and not 'se aprovechó de'? It seems quite a negative context to me, and the context even seems to be leading us towards using the reflexive form by saying 'el muy egoísta'. 

Rafa, [being] such an idiot, took advantage of the moment to break up with me. : Rafa, el muy egoísta, ___ la ocasión para romper conmigo.

What do you mean by "the condition is impossible"?

Why is "Quiero un abrigo rosado" wrong? Don't rosa and rosado mean the same thing?

Part of a sentence in the above exercise says "Donde se encerraba a los enemigos del castillo" Should encerraba not be plural i.e. encerraban? Is it singular because " a los enemigos" is indirect? I'm confused. Why not fueron encerrados?

I don’t understand any of this at all, whatsoever. I’ve read it many, many times, including the comments. I know there is a difference between Spain Spanish and Latin American Spanish for has/have, but how can one differentiate between them? I am so lost. 

Hace mucho frío en Canadá. 

I don't understand why " mucho" is used here.

Hola Inma,

The text has an opening question which I answered as "¿A quién no le apetece......?" and was marked incorrect. Shouldn't there be an accent on "quién"?

Also in the final sentence, I'm sure that the speaker doesn't say "las ensaladas" but it is included in the text. 

Saludos

John

I think this lesson should be in a C1 category as it is very subtle. I just cannot see the difference in the  meaning of the first two sentences,,,,estoy&esté. Maybe you could provide better examples or explanations on this point of grammar