I don’t understand any of this at all, whatsoever. I’ve read it many, many times, including the comments. I know there is a difference between Spain Spanish and Latin American Spanish for has/have, but how can one differentiate between them? I am so lost.
Sorry you feel confused when reading this topic.
It is indeed one of the most difficult grammar points in Spanish. The use of the Spanish present perfect (he ido) as opposed to the preterite (fui) is easier to understand for European Spanish learners because the cases for using one or the other are more defined. However, in Latin America, it is more difficult to establish when and why to use one tense or the other.
We will go back to this lesson and see how it could be maybe re-worded or add more clarification.
Bri, it’s basically this: use the preterite tense most of the time. There are two exceptions:
(1) if the action started in the past and is still continuing and
(2) if the past action was recent and the speaker is emphasizing that it was recent.
For these exceptions we use the present perfect tense.
It would also help to make a table for the uses. Write the column headings “Latin America” and “Spain” across the top. Then for the row headings write “action is still continuing”, “speaker wants to emphasize that the action just happened”, and so on. In the table write the tense that is used in each case. I often find that I have to make tables and brief summaries for Kwiziq lessons.
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