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5,625 questions • 8,979 answers • 872,506 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,625 questions • 8,979 answers • 872,506 learners
Hi. There is an exact same question in the quiz as there is in this lesson. When I put the correct answer from this lesson, it was marked as wrong.
In this construction, can the "se" also go at the end of the infinitive, like this:
No debe fumarse.
?
Thanks!
I need to listen at a lower level than this. Can we go back to the beginning?
Estoy un poco confundido. La celebración es la Fiesta de Quince Años y el celebrante es el Quinceañero/a, verdad?
Hola!
Quiero saber si los personas mexicano dicen "j" para "ll" y "y" o es un "y" sonido? Vivo en California y quiero sonar mas natural para mi comunidad. Gracias por todo!
(Sorry if my Spanish is broken, I just restarted learning)
Instead of translating the English as a negation, translating it "as if you knew how to make a fried egg!" (for example), it's still completely clear that the response is meant to imply that the other person does *not* know how to fry an egg. I don't think this even qualifies as sarcasm.
Well, I guess if that's how they speak in Argentina, I won't be visiing there soon, if ever. Apart from the yeismo, the speaker articulated more through her nose than through the mouth (French-style) making her words almost impossible to understand. Good, clear Spanish is my aim.
When does the o-ending in the 3rd person pretérito indefinido get a tilde (like "oyó) and when doesn't it?
My question from yesterday was poorly worded. One sees "algo que" with most verbs as in "Tiene algo que declarar/hacer" but one sees "algo de" or "algo para" with "Tiene algo de comer/beber?" or "Tiene algo para comer/beber?" Most verbs seem to take "algo que" in translators when there is an infinitive afterward and certainly when there is a conjugated verb after "algo." Are "algo de comer/beber" and "algo para comer/beber" just idioms or set phrases? If not, when does one use "algo que" vs "algo de " (which can also mean some or a bit of) and "algo para"?
After reading the recommended lesson at Spanish verbs Llevar vs Llevarse (pronominal verbs) [Lesson 9495; then look at: 'Getting along with people'] I am puzzled as to why the pronominal form of llevar was not permitted here: namely "Nos llevamos juntos tanto tiempo".
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