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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,889 questions • 9,633 answers • 966,872 learners
Are there more than 2 practice questions somewhere for each lesson?
Apologies, as this is a bit outside the lesson. Can the infinitive ever stand alone as a command in Spanish (without the a + form) in either the negative or positive? I was under the impression that it could, but I don’t specifically remember learning to do so, and I might be transferring from another language I’ve studied. Thanks!
hola
________ digo siempre lo que pienso.I always tell him what I think.I answered 'lo' thinking that it was the direct object but the answer was 'le'Is 'lo que pienso' the direct object and 'him' the indirect object?
as a note , I never recieve email notifications of answers - so sometimes miss themthanks for your help
"Hacía varios días que alguien me acosaba" means:
Someone was stalking me for several days.
I was stalked for several days by someone.
Someone had stalked me for several days.
None of these answer carry the sense of being in the time frame of the past the way the examples do, such as "someone had been stalking me for several days". In English, I don't think the 2nd or 3rd answer are functionally any different. The first one is the only one to partly give a sense that this is an ongoing thing, even though it doesn't give the same frame of reference.
I suggest you change the available answers.
Would be great to have another column in the table above with example sentences, or just the verb in action.
I know e.g. how to use "doler" -> me/te/etc. duele, but I don't know it for e.g. "caer bien".
That way I wouldn't need to change the tab and tell ChatGPT to write down the examples.
I think this lesson should be in a C1 category as it is very subtle. I just cannot see the difference in the meaning of the first two sentences,,,,estoy&esté. Maybe you could provide better examples or explanations on this point of grammar
In the quiz to find out which level you are, I was marked wrong for putting "hay" instead of "tiene" in the question about the city having a pool. Why is it giving me two different answers now?
In the last section of the translation, "between the practical, incredulity and mysticism" is translated as "entre lo práctico, la incredulidad y el misticismo." I don't understand why the práctico gets lo as it's article (other than because the hint said so). Can you explain, please. Thanks
Why is "pasar" shown to mean "have" when English speakers just as often say "to spend?" Wouldn't it be truer to the Spanish to say it means "to spend?" Also, that will help me learn the actual meaning of "pasar." To say it means "have" I would think may sow some confusion.
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