Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,942 questions • 9,713 answers • 986,519 learners
Getting that for you now...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,942 questions • 9,713 answers • 986,519 learners
En la frase, "que si unas almejas", no entiendo porque utilizamos 'si' y no 'son'.
Puedo decir, “para conocer a uno de mis actores preferidos”, también?
In the section about no porque you say: "if the causal subordinate clause is negative, it allows both the indicative and the subjunctive (without changing the meaning)."
A says that no porque must be used with the subjunctive according to the Cervantes Institute, and you (Inma) seem to agree with him, saying: "with no porque you use the subjunctive."
I just did a Kwiz where "no porque era" was a correct option.
So, what is going on there? Can no porque take both the subjunctive and the indicative or just the subjunctive?
Can you explain to me when to use hace, when to use hay?
Thank u so much
I noticed that "lunch" was turned into a noun in the English translation. That really is not necessary because every English speaker is familiar with "lunch" being used as a verb. It is not common, but not improper or unknown. If Spanish speakers think of it as a verb, then it can only help learners to think of it as a verb as well, no?
Hola,
Just to let you know that the hint here doesn't match the sentence.
_______ y le informaremos de todo.You just have to call us and we'll inform you about everything.HINT: echar un vistazo = to have a look
I’m trying to unlearn or clarify some things about this verb. Could you comment on if these examples are correct or wrong and provide a short explanation? “A ti te gusta pollo?” “Me gusta pensar.” “Me gusta todo.” “Les gustan criticarme.” “A mi no me gustan ellos.” “Ellos no les gusta a mi.”
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level