Aunque +subjunctive vs indicativeCould someone attempt to clear something up for me?
In a quiz question on this subject we are asked to choose subjunctive vs indicative as follows:
"Aunque no ______ (tiene/tenga) mucho éxito en general, la película me parece interesante" (Although it is not very successful in general, the movie seems interesting to me)
The hint given is that there is no doubt in the speaker's mind regarding the aunque clause.
The answer is tenga (subjunctive)
In English, even if and although have quite different connotations: even if can indicate an element of doubt, but although generally does not, so I can usually work out how one or the other determines either indicative or subjunctive in Spanish translation. But I don't understand how this phrase triggers the subjunctive in this question.
Firstly, from the hint given, the phrase doesn't necessarily imply that this is shared information (that the accompanying lesson suggests would trigger the subjunctive). This info might be known only to the speaker, so shouldn't that would point to the indicative? Secondly, if there's no doubt in the speaker's mind, why consider using subjunctive at all?
I have encountered real-life examples using both indicative and subjunctive with "una vez que..." and I'm just hoping to confirm or correct my understanding of how this works, please...? For examples, In an article about animals' senses of smell, in discussing the properties of volatile scent compounds I read "Una vez que se vaporiza, puede extenderse rápidamente por el aire" and in a tutorial for making tortillas mexicanas I found "Una vez que sepas cómo hacer tortillas..." I'm thinking that the first takes the indicative because its describing something factual understood to happen routinely, whereas the second takes the subjunctive because it's referring to something that from the writer's point of view hasn't happened yet or is more a hypothetical idea. Is this an accurate way to understand this or am I missing something...? If this is accurate, does it generally hold true with other, similar constructions like those discussed in this lesson? Thanks in advance, as I appreciate the help!
In your example of the
El Imperfecto de Subjuntivo
You're using the verb haber ie
Hubiera hubiese etc
So what's the preterito pluscuamperfecto de subjuntivo?
I thought that was
hubiera hubiese
I thought el imperfecto de subjuntivo was the past subjuntivo ie
Tuviera
Fuera
Pusiera
Etc
I love this article! I spent over two years in the ROP and I loved the people! I think an article on how Spanish affected the major indigenous language Tagalog would be fascinating. For example the Tagalog greeting "Komo staka" is very close to Como esta and the term for very good "may sarap" is from muey sabroso. (My spelling of Tagalog words are probably wrong.) I also remember that the word for stop in Tagalog is "parar". I know that during my time of the ROP I never heard anyone speak in Spanish. I only wish that I had known some Spanish back then (circa 1977-1980). It certainly would have helped me to learn more Tagalog phrases.
In the question "Yo no loraría aunque me [dejar]", with the hint that it is a hypothetical situation, it's clear that the subjunctive should be used. But why is it wrong to use the present subjunctive "dejes", and is only the imperfect "dejaras" correct?
What is the difference between this and the sentence Voy a salir después aunque llueva mucho. which is in the lesson "Aunque + el presente vs el presente de subjunctivo"?
Is it because of the conditional?
Could someone attempt to clear something up for me?
In a quiz question on this subject we are asked to choose subjunctive vs indicative as follows:
"Aunque no ______ (tiene/tenga) mucho éxito en general, la película me parece interesante" (Although it is not very successful in general, the movie seems interesting to me)
The hint given is that there is no doubt in the speaker's mind regarding the aunque clause.
The answer is tenga (subjunctive)
In English, even if and although have quite different connotations: even if can indicate an element of doubt, but although generally does not, so I can usually work out how one or the other determines either indicative or subjunctive in Spanish translation. But I don't understand how this phrase triggers the subjunctive in this question.
Firstly, from the hint given, the phrase doesn't necessarily imply that this is shared information (that the accompanying lesson suggests would trigger the subjunctive). This info might be known only to the speaker, so shouldn't that would point to the indicative? Secondly, if there's no doubt in the speaker's mind, why consider using subjunctive at all?
Sometimes, when Spanish words sound similar to English words, my brain automatically connects them to English words. In this case, my brain associates varios/varias with the English word 'various'. Is this a correct assumption?
In English, various provides more clarity than the word 'some' in that it denotes small differences among the various objects that are being described. Is that the case for Spanish too?
Why is it ‘hacer la lumbre en la cocina', then later ‘hacer el fuego'? Is it because, the second time, we are more focused on actually getting a fire going, and the first time we're thinking about the type of fire?
Can they be used synonymously? What is the difference in meaning and use between the two?
Please explain 'al' in Mis amigos sintieron una gran alegría al verme.
Gracias,
Ricky
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