Using the '-se' suffix with vosotros?In an e-mail entitled: "A new error has been submitted by a user [#252851]", Laura Lawless today (4th May) asked me to repost this here:
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Question 6 in the [first] 'StudyPlan' quiz which I did on 3rd May, required a translation for:
"You two, wash your hair!"
The 'vosotros' part was already provided for us, so I chose:
Vosotros dos, ¡A lavaros el pelo!
However, I was marked incorrect, because you said that another possible option is:
Vosotros dos, ¡A lavarse el pelo!
>> But surely the "-se" suffix is not compatible with "vosotros"? … i.e., it has to be '-os', [only '-os', not both].
No leiste ningún libro de italiano.
For "any Italian books" why is this not "nigunos libros italianos"?
Hola,
Una de las personajes del programa española que veo dice lo siguiente:
"A ti se te da muy bien coser."
¿Qué significa? En este caso, "te" es un ejemplo del dativo del interés, ¿verdad? ¿A quién es conjugado "darse"? Al final, ¿hay una lección sobre esta construcción?
Muchas gracias
In an e-mail entitled: "A new error has been submitted by a user [#252851]", Laura Lawless today (4th May) asked me to repost this here:
>
Question 6 in the [first] 'StudyPlan' quiz which I did on 3rd May, required a translation for:
"You two, wash your hair!"
The 'vosotros' part was already provided for us, so I chose:
Vosotros dos, ¡A lavaros el pelo!
However, I was marked incorrect, because you said that another possible option is:
Vosotros dos, ¡A lavarse el pelo!
>> But surely the "-se" suffix is not compatible with "vosotros"? … i.e., it has to be '-os', [only '-os', not both].
Los adultos compran este calendario para los niños porque tienen chocolates y son deliciosos.
Tienen is plural while calendario is singular. So who have the chocolates? The adults or the children? Neither makes sense.
This sentence is funny in a way because you could read as the children have chocolates and the children are delicious. I guess the adults buy the calendar to lull the children, to capture them and eat them. Yum, delicious children:-)
Hi,
In "... hacer la compra." could 'las compras' have been used instead?
Which is better?
Thanks.
Colin
For example,
Tengo que ir al colegio.
Instead of using "voy", ir was used. Why is that?
Thanks.
I have encountered real-life examples using both indicative and subjunctive with "una vez que..." and I'm just hoping to confirm or correct my understanding of how this works, please...? For examples, In an article about animals' senses of smell, in discussing the properties of volatile scent compounds I read "Una vez que se vaporiza, puede extenderse rápidamente por el aire" and in a tutorial for making tortillas mexicanas I found "Una vez que sepas cómo hacer tortillas..." I'm thinking that the first takes the indicative because its describing something factual understood to happen routinely, whereas the second takes the subjunctive because it's referring to something that from the writer's point of view hasn't happened yet or is more a hypothetical idea. Is this an accurate way to understand this or am I missing something...? If this is accurate, does it generally hold true with other, similar constructions like those discussed in this lesson? Thanks in advance, as I appreciate the help!
I've just realised that this lesson needs more detail to cover ser and estar.
When talking about something earlier in the day, generally, something that uses estar will use imperfecto, not perfecto nor indefinido, breaking the rule completely! Whereas ser will follow the rule.
So if we ate something delicious this morning we'd say, "!Estaba rico!" not "he sido rico" nor "estuvo rico".
Estar by its nature expresses more transient states of being than ser and the imperfect tense matches this (at least, that's how it feels to me but as I'm not a native Spaniard, I look forward to hearing Kwiziq's native experts' views to expand or correct this for me!)
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