Could someone attempt to clear something up for me?
In a quiz question on this subject we are asked to choose subjunctive vs indicative as follows:
"Aunque no ______ (tiene/tenga) mucho éxito en general, la película me parece interesante" (Although it is not very successful in general, the movie seems interesting to me)
The hint given is that there is no doubt in the speaker's mind regarding the aunque clause.
The answer is tenga (subjunctive)
In English, even if and although have quite different connotations: even if can indicate an element of doubt, but although generally does not, so I can usually work out how one or the other determines either indicative or subjunctive in Spanish translation. But I don't understand how this phrase triggers the subjunctive in this question.
Firstly, from the hint given, the phrase doesn't necessarily imply that this is shared information (that the accompanying lesson suggests would trigger the subjunctive). This info might be known only to the speaker, so shouldn't that would point to the indicative? Secondly, if there's no doubt in the speaker's mind, why consider using subjunctive at all?
The hint for this question is not saying that "there is not doubt in the speaker's mind", it is saing the film's "lack of success" is information known by the listener.
With this hint we then know that it is a piece of information that is already known (it is not said for the first time). If this information has already been shared, then aunque is followed by the subjunctive, "aunque tenga..."
Sign in to submit your answer
Don't have an account yet? Join today
Test your Spanish to the CEFR standard