Spanish language Q&A Forum

HELP:  Translation of "He goes to his friend's house" 

1 Va a la casa de su amigo

2 Va a casa de su amigo

Is the definite article "la" casa necessary or does it make no difference?

Are both correct with no subtle difference in meaning?

I have searched the internet and KWIZIQ and can find no answer.

Many thanks,

Ian

Ian

If gustar is followed by a verb, you always use gusta, right? Example: Me gusta nadar con los delfines. VS Me gustan los delfines. 

Am I understanding that correctly? 

I'm having trouble understanding this answer in a study plan test.  Could you please explain.

Ella estaba lavándose el pelo cuando él llegó.
She was washing her hair when he arrived.

When it is combined with another action that interrupts the ongoing action at that time. The interrupting action is generally in the simple past (see the last example where the ongoing action "She was washing her hair" was interrupted by another sudden action "he arrived”.

 Te ________ hasta que me aburrí y me fui.  
I was waiting for you until I got bored and left.

era esperando
estaba esperando-----my answer
estuve esperando------correct Kwiziq answer
fui esperando

 To me, it seems that the waiting was interrupted by "got bored and left."

Nosotros estamos arriba. (We are arrived) . The answer is estamos instead somos. I thought estamos only use in place. Can you please give an example. 

In the introduction to this lesson, you say the meaning is similar to using "haber plus infinitive". I think you mean haber plus past participle i.e. the perfect tense

Hola,

How does the meaning change when es que is preceded by si?    For example:

Si es que no podía ni hablar.

Happy birthday to you.  Why is ti used and not te?   I can’t find a lesson on the use of ti instead of te. For instance para ti

You wrote : "¡Cómo no, por supuesto!" but isn't it the same thing two times? What is the difference between "cómo no" and "por supuesto"?

Does this mean my little friend is mi amiguito?