Still confused Luis y yo no hemos roto ________ nos hemos dado un tiempo para pensar.Luis and I haven't broken up but we gave each other some time to think.
I put "pero" because this seems like new information as much as a substitution, or at least it's a very complex substitution.
BUT, one of your example sentences for "pero" is, roughly, "I can't go out tonight, but I'll go out tomorrow." In one of your earlier replies, you give this example: "Ella no puede venir hoy sino mañana. (substituting)S he can't come today but tomorrow"
I don't understand why these two seemingly interchangeable examples are given first as an example for "pero" in the main text and then as an example for "sino" in the comments.
This seems much more like a substitution, no?
Why does changing g to j preserve the infinitive pronunciation?
When you click on this sentence in this lesson, it sounds like Quiero mas peras. Am I right or am i not hearing it correctly
In the quiz question A veces ________ que llevamos casados 20 años. I selected the response “se me olvido” which was incorrect — but I’m not sure why, even after reviewing the lesson. I have a couple guesses, but could you help me understand why it doesn’t work?
Hi!
So in "Si empiezas el trabajo mañana, te tocaría archivar los expedientes a primera hora", here tocaría is a conditional, so would the correct translation not be "you would have to file" Instead of "you will have to file"? Like this: "If you start work tomorrow, you would have to file the dossiers first thing."
Thank you and have a good weekend!
Luis and I haven't broken up but we gave each other some time to think.
I put "pero" because this seems like new information as much as a substitution, or at least it's a very complex substitution.
BUT, one of your example sentences for "pero" is, roughly, "I can't go out tonight, but I'll go out tomorrow." In one of your earlier replies, you give this example: "Ella no puede venir hoy sino mañana. (substituting)S he can't come today but tomorrow"
I don't understand why these two seemingly interchangeable examples are given first as an example for "pero" in the main text and then as an example for "sino" in the comments.
This seems much more like a substitution, no?
Hello,
Why should you use the imperative in the conditional if the present tense suffices?
In this lesson it is taught that you have to use the imperative in the conditional if you want to give advice.
However, in the other lesson "Si [if] followed by present indicative + main clause (present tense/future tense)" there are also sentences that give advice without using the imperative.
Si te gustan esos pendientes, deberías comprarlos.If you like those earrings, you should buy them.
In the Tip it says that the above este etc can be used as demonstrative pronouns. This is not quite correct as demonstrative pronouns are éste ,ésta, They have a hyphen above the e . Where as esto is similar in both cases
I just took a quiz that included this (correct) answer: "ya sea salado o dulce" to complete the sentence "Me encanta la cocina francesa...." Why doesn't the 1st adjective change to agree in gender with "cocina"? I picked it anyway, as there was no option with "salada" (and it was the best available option) but it still struck me as incorrect.
Hello is this verb correct- "arrascar"? I didn't find it in the spanishdict.com and other dictionaries I use. There is only "rascar".
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