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Let me take a look at that...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,962 questions • 9,749 answers • 995,197 learners
Can you explain the function of “lo” in Ella lo huele todo? Is it because oler needs an object?
Sending love, prayers and positive thoughts to all in Kwiziq land.
To all the teachers- thank you for continuing to be there for us on our language journeys. I hope you're all healthy and safe.
Clara :)
Hi there........so, am I getting this right: these two examples are in pret indefinido because they have an ASSUMED timeframe in the speakers' mind?Nosotros estuvimos hablando con los periodistas.Ellos estuvieron arreglando el grifo de la cocina.
Why is the word la mesa used here?
A esto libro le faltan dos paginas. I found this sentence and him confused why we use a with it
It seems I have considerable confusion over when to use a definite/indefinite article before a noun. I know it is needed when using gustar (e.g., me gusta el chocolate), but I have confusion in other contexts. For example, for the prompt "you need to have strong legs", I wrote necesitas tener las piernas fuertes, but the correct answer was "necesitas tener piernas fuertes" --- without the article. What's the rule on this?
My other confusion appears to be with the use of possessives. The prompt was "I'm going to exercise my muscles". I wrote voy a ejercitar los músculos but the correct answer was "voy a ejercitar mis músculos". It seems I'm confusing the rule of not using the possessive adjective as is required in such phrases as "My head is hurting" --- "Me duelo la cabeza" , or "I raise my hand" -- "Me levanto la mano". Please help me to know the difference for when I can (have) to use the possessive adjective versus when it is not used.
Thank you and I look forward to some clarity (finally) on these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
Why is cantor translated to PLAY instead of SING in the example?
Ah, me encantaba jugar este juego cuando era una niña!
Gracias por este ejercicio excelente Shui. :)
I understand that No, Verdad are correct and taught in the lesson but is vale really wrong?
Hello, this lesson states that "Notice how for these verbs, -i- becomes -y- in all forms."
But I think that it is more correct to say that "a Y is added to the stem in all forms". Huir is an IR verb, so it's stem is HU, you aren't replacing an I.
Have I understood the lesson correctly?
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