Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hello, this lesson states that "Notice how for these verbs, -i- becomes -y- in all forms."

But I think that it is more correct to say that "a Y is added to the stem in all forms".  Huir is an IR verb, so it's stem is HU, you aren't replacing an I.

Have I understood the lesson correctly?

It seems I have considerable confusion over when to use a definite/indefinite article before a noun. I know it is needed when using gustar (e.g., me gusta el chocolate), but I have confusion in other contexts. For example, for the prompt "you need to have strong legs",  I wrote necesitas tener las piernas fuertes, but the correct answer was "necesitas tener piernas fuertes" --- without the article. What's the rule on this? 

My other confusion appears to be with the use of possessives. The prompt was "I'm going to exercise my muscles". I wrote voy a ejercitar los músculos but the correct answer was "voy a ejercitar mis músculos". It seems I'm confusing the rule of not using the possessive adjective as is required in such phrases as "My head is hurting"  --- "Me duelo la cabeza" , or "I raise my hand" -- "Me levanto la mano".  Please help me to know the difference for when I can (have) to use the possessive adjective versus when it is not used.

Thank you and I look forward to some clarity (finally) on these two issues.

Regards,

Pati Ecuamiga

yo cantaba en un grupo 

is there a difference between the above?

do they both mean I used to sing?

The examples given seem to be in the preterite, not the subjunctive. Should the title be changed, or the examples? Or am I mixed up?

I don't understand why there is a lesson that seems to be about the nuances between the indefinite and the perfect, but for the kwiz both tenses are accepted. What exactly are we supposed to learn here?