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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,075 questions • 9,949 answers • 1,034,513 learners
Are there any guidelines for the use of the phrase '' ''los demás'' versus ''los otros'' this? Many thanks
Así pues, si tengo - atreverse alguien a hacer algo - to dare someone to do something.
How would I say: I dare you to do this - because it's atreverse you have to say me for me and then te for you? for example te atreveme a hacer esto. But it doesn't make sense because it's like the other person is daring me but in fact it's me daring the person. te atrave a hacer esto I think is better but then what about the 'me' because it's reflexive.
Could I say... Después de vivir en Madrid por diez años yo me he vuelto Español.
"Mis padres se animaron con la visita de mis sobrinos." I don't understand why this is animarse. They aren't cheering themselves up, they're being cheered up by the visit of mis sobrinos.
Is there are reason these sentences are in the pretérito perfecto:
La obra de teatro nos ha aburrido mucho
Me ha encantado tu actuación
The English translations aren't in the perfect. I could imagine saying "the play has bored us" and that carrying a somewhat different meaning than "the play bored us". Similarly, "I have loved your performance" might be something one would say to a regular company member who is leaving after 6 months in a role, while "I loved your performance" might be said to some immediately after seeing their show for the first time (in English). I am trying to understand the nuances of why you might use the perfect tense in Spanish when it seems like the indefinite tense would work as well (and in English would mean something different).
Hi all,
I have been given one week free from this website. Will I be automatically charged if I don't actively cancel the 'free 7 days'??
The kwiziq page "Ser vs Estar in Spanish: Using ser in Spanish (not estar) to talk about time, days, dates and seasons" (Ser vs Estar in Spanish: Using ser in Spanish (not estar) to talk about time, days, dates and seasons) says
Hoy es lunes. = Today is Monday. ("Today" is singular.)
but
Son las tres de la tarde. = It's three o'clock in the afternoon. ("It" is plural.)
Why are these different?
Hello,
Please would you point me to a lesson or explain briefly why "voy a comprarme" is used rather than "voy a comprar". Is it just clarification that I'm buying a house for me, rather than some random person, or is it absolutely needed?
Many Thanks
There are four examples given of fractions in the end of the lesson :
tres cuartos,
dos decimos,
tres octavos,
un septimo
These examples are supposed to show the need for plurals when the numerator (top number) is more than one. Unfortunately all the numbers choosen ( dos and tres) end in "s". I found myself somewhat confused, and wondering if this meant that the top number should also have an "s", por ejemplo sietes ochos instead of siete ochos.
It would be clearer if you used included a fraction that did not end in "s"; por ejemplo cuarto octavos instead of tres octavos.
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