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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,721 questions • 9,222 answers • 908,592 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,721 questions • 9,222 answers • 908,592 learners
No se puede viajar a ese país hasta que ________ seguro.
I don't understand why this sentence is translated as ... ('we' can't travel). Wouldn't it be podemos for *we* ? I thought *puede* was singular for he/her/it
I also don't understand why the answer is *sea* and not *se*
Can someone please explain.
Puedo escribir lo que quiera y no es tan agobiante como para que me lo encuentre dificilísimo y no quiera continuar. = I can write what I want and it’s not so overwhelming that I find it very difficult and do not want to continue. My question is why is para que used here? Does it carry the meaning of in order to, so that? Because translation shows otherwise not indicating the subordinate clause as goals. And tan… Como is used here. Does it have another meaning when used with para que ?
Why does árábe have two accents the first time and only one, el árabe, the second time?
Why is hubiera casado con él wrong? The English doesn’t say “if she had gotten married to him”
Thanks, Shirley
Hello. Can you please explain why the definite article isn't used in this phrase? Is it similar to the difference between "en casa" (at home) and "en la casa" (in the house, as in a physical location)? Thank you!
The sample sentences in all of the lessons are too fast when the sentences are long and complex, even for advanced students. I have to use a separate text to speech app at a slightly reduced speed in order to fully understand them. They are not just speaking at normal speed, but at a very high speed. (In my considered opinion)
thank you, James
Hola Ana,
Muchas gracias por ser tan claro cuando hablas en los ejercicios. Lo haces mucho más fácil entender. ¡Eres genial!
Un saludo
Clara :)
In the test, we are asked to translate 'Also, Ken Follet used it (to write his literary works)'. At first, I translated it as 'Ken Follet la usa', but then I noticed I was being specifically asked to construct a sentence using 'se'. Assuming a passive sentence was required, I put 'Además, se usó por Ken Follet', but was corrected with 'Además, Ken Follet la usó'. Surely, there is something not quite right here?
'If Cristina had married him' - why is 'se hubiera casada' marked wrong?
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