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Let me take a look at that...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,895 questions • 9,645 answers • 969,057 learners
I think I read in one of the lessons that decir was used to describe briefer statements, while contar was used when statements were more extensive or detailed. Would it also be correct to say "Me contó que solo era cuestión de tiempo..."?
Hasta ver este video había tenido la impresión de que exclusivamente se usa la frase "de x a x" para decir "from x to x," pero dice el narrador que las Picotas del Jerte "darán la vuelta al mundo de paladar en paladar."
¿También habría sido aceptable decir "de paladar a paladar"?
Does it have to be a specific duration with desde hace? Or could we say:
No visito desde hace mucho tiempo un pueblo tan bonito que este
And would it be incorrect to say:
Ha pasado mucho tiempo desde que visité un pueblo tan bonito que este.
...or is it just another way of saying the same thing?
It seems I have considerable confusion over when to use a definite/indefinite article before a noun. I know it is needed when using gustar (e.g., me gusta el chocolate), but I have confusion in other contexts. For example, for the prompt "you need to have strong legs", I wrote necesitas tener las piernas fuertes, but the correct answer was "necesitas tener piernas fuertes" --- without the article. What's the rule on this?
My other confusion appears to be with the use of possessives. The prompt was "I'm going to exercise my muscles". I wrote voy a ejercitar los músculos but the correct answer was "voy a ejercitar mis músculos". It seems I'm confusing the rule of not using the possessive adjective as is required in such phrases as "My head is hurting" --- "Me duelo la cabeza" , or "I raise my hand" -- "Me levanto la mano". Please help me to know the difference for when I can (have) to use the possessive adjective versus when it is not used.
Thank you and I look forward to some clarity (finally) on these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
Hola,
This looks to me like a passive construction. Yes /No?
Is there a lesson about using it this way?
Gracias. John
¿Por qué hay tilde en “ ésa”?
“ésa sería mi abuela Carmen sin duda.”
In the example: Estamos buscando una farmacia para comprar paracetamol.We are looking for a chemist to buy some paracetamol.Is a chemist a pharmacy or a pharmacist?
I'm trying to figure out if you need the personal a if it is just a particular person and not if it is the name of a person's job. So here, if chemist is a pharmacist, I don't use a personal a because it isn't a specific person.
OR.
If the personal a is for any person and here chemist is a pharmacy, not a pharmacist.
Thanks!
Tara
Puedes ayudarme con una oración en un libro estoy leyendo….No se si el autoro usa la palabra en una manera poética or es normalmente y correcto? Trying to understand if Aturdir and irritar are normally used like the above verbs ‘ like gustar etc. The following sentence from New Penguin short stories in Spanish [ de la cuenta ‘ La Indiferencia de Eva]. Me aturden las personas muy activas y, si son mujeres, me irritan.
1. In your "hint", you told us to "... use a pronominal verb for 'take advantage' " -
- but despite that^, in order to get a correct answer we were supposed to write: "Aprovecha la ruptura para conocerte más a ti misma" - [i.e., with 'aprovecha', a non-pronominal verb?]
("Aprovecha la ruptura ..." is of course quite consistent with the guidelines given in your lesson at Spanish verb Aprovechar vs Aprovecharse (pronominal verbs) [number 7478] ... so it is only your 'hint' which needs to be modified, not your text).
-.-.-.-.-
2. In your sentence: "... ya que ambos estábais sumergidos en una relación tóxica", there should not be a tilde in 'estabais'?
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