Gerund vs present continuousHi. I'm a big fan of this site, for many reasons, so I am pointing this out in a spirit of collaboration, not criticism: I think this page should refer to "present continuous" and "present participles", not gerunds.
The gerund is a form, derived from a verb, which ends in --ing, but it is the noun from the verb. This page is all about an alternative verb form.
For example: "Smoking is bad for you."
"Smoking" is a gerund, as it has become a noun.
"That man is smoking" is the present continuous form of the verb. "Smoking" in this sentence is the present participle, i.e. not a gerund.
I am prepared to accept that this might be a US/UK English thing; I'd be very interested to hear if this were the case.
Best wishes
Andrew Wenger
Is there a rule about when the "o" at the end of the 3rd person has an accent or not? It seemed that when "y" replaces the "i", there's no accent on the "o", but that doesn't work for oyó
EDIT: maybe only after "j" replacement is the "o" without an accent?
En la oración: Espero que mi madre COCINE un pavo asado riquisimo con un relleno hecho de pan y maiz de salvia. What is the conjugation of "cocine", please?
cooks, has cooked, will have cooked
Tiene and usted tiene
Both are correct, as the usted is optional to phrase in the sentence.
But it is marked incorrect. Grammatically it is correct, so I believe it shouldn't be marked incorrrect.
In the section about no porque you say: "if the causal subordinate clause is negative, it allows both the indicative and the subjunctive (without changing the meaning)."
A says that no porque must be used with the subjunctive according to the Cervantes Institute, and you (Inma) seem to agree with him, saying: "with no porque you use the subjunctive."
I just did a Kwiz where "no porque era" was a correct option.
So, what is going on there? Can no porque take both the subjunctive and the indicative or just the subjunctive?
I am having the exact same problem on the quiz/test item for this lesson as Linda is having. The percentage does not rise above 93.7.
Hi. I'm a big fan of this site, for many reasons, so I am pointing this out in a spirit of collaboration, not criticism: I think this page should refer to "present continuous" and "present participles", not gerunds.
The gerund is a form, derived from a verb, which ends in --ing, but it is the noun from the verb. This page is all about an alternative verb form.
For example: "Smoking is bad for you."
"Smoking" is a gerund, as it has become a noun.
"That man is smoking" is the present continuous form of the verb. "Smoking" in this sentence is the present participle, i.e. not a gerund.
I am prepared to accept that this might be a US/UK English thing; I'd be very interested to hear if this were the case.
Best wishes
Andrew Wenger
Hola a todos,
A huge thank you to Inma and all the other super teachers we have at our beck and call here in Kwiziq land. Inma et.al, you have the patience of saints!
My request: I have mentioned this before but feel that I need to bring it up again...
Please, when we are asking for assistance from the teachers can we all be mindful of 'manners'. A simple 'Hi', a 'please could you help me with...' and then just a simple 'thank you' in advance or when help has been given.
Gracias y saludos :)
I just completed a translation exercise which included the following sentence:
"... we see the fireworks and we receive gifts from Father Christmas."
I translated the sentence as follows: "... vemos los fuegos artificiales y recibimos regalos desde Papá Noel". Kwiziq indicated that the correct translation should have been "... vemos los fuegos artificiales y recibimos los regalos de Papá noel."
I have two question about this:
1) Why was it necessary to insert "los" in front of "regalos"? I do not understand fully the rule of when the definite articles (singular or plural) must be used. As you can see, I inserted it when "the" was included before "fireworks" in the English translation, but omitted "los" when "the" was not included before "gifts" in the English translation. Again, what's the rule on this? When I practice the writing exercises seems use of articles is hit and miss.
2) I am confused about why "de" was used as translation of "from" instead of "desde". Seems "regalos de Papá Noel" would translate in English to Santa Claus's gifts. Please explain.
Thank you!
Pati Ecuamiga.
Why is the word la mesa used here?
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