Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,619 questions • 8,965 answers • 871,064 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,619 questions • 8,965 answers • 871,064 learners
Hola Inma,
Would "ocurrió" be an acceptable alternative here?
Saludos
John
As an English speaker, it is very difficult to learn and apply indirect objects in Spanish.
I understand why you need les in the following sentence. It is because you are making dinner "for them." However is there an easy way to remember this construction when you are actually talking. I seem to understand it when I read it, but don't seem to be able to apply indirect objects when I try to speak. Is this common? How do I overcome it? It is like you are saying for them twice. Once as the pronoun "les" and once as "a nuestros invitados.
Nosotros les preparamos la cena a nuestros invitados.We are cooking dinner for our guests.
Could you please present a couple of formats for questions in Spanish that would likely elicit answers using the "llevar + gerundio" response? Are the questions in the present tense? (The questions in English would be similar to: How long have you been studying? How many hours has he been waiting?) Thank you.
Hola,
Should the phrase be "con sillas en las que"?
Saludos. John
It seems I have considerable confusion over when to use a definite/indefinite article before a noun. I know it is needed when using gustar (e.g., me gusta el chocolate), but I have confusion in other contexts. For example, for the prompt "you need to have strong legs", I wrote necesitas tener las piernas fuertes, but the correct answer was "necesitas tener piernas fuertes" --- without the article. What's the rule on this?
My other confusion appears to be with the use of possessives. The prompt was "I'm going to exercise my muscles". I wrote voy a ejercitar los músculos but the correct answer was "voy a ejercitar mis músculos". It seems I'm confusing the rule of not using the possessive adjective as is required in such phrases as "My head is hurting" --- "Me duelo la cabeza" , or "I raise my hand" -- "Me levanto la mano". Please help me to know the difference for when I can (have) to use the possessive adjective versus when it is not used.
Thank you and I look forward to some clarity (finally) on these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
Hola Kwiziq team
I can't find any on-line Spanish grammar text that indicates that "que" can be used in place of "porque" to begin an explanatory clause. I assume that that usage must be very colloquial and only used when talking with friends. Am I correct about that?
Al
How do I learn about imperatives that are irregular like “ven”....?
Hola,
Does this construction have the same meaning as Por mí que... or does it mean something else? It also looks like it takes the indicative rather than the subjunctive though. For example:
Por mí como si te atragantas con la magdalena.
Hello. Would the following be acceptable as translation?
"ya que su vida se refleja en cada uno de ellos"
Find your Spanish level for FREE
Test your Spanish to the CEFR standard
Find your Spanish level