Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,683 questions • 9,146 answers • 896,814 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,683 questions • 9,146 answers • 896,814 learners
I answered the question with the plural they form vienen and you marked it wrong and it wasn't wrong
In the test, we are asked to translate 'Also, Ken Follet used it (to write his literary works)'. At first, I translated it as 'Ken Follet la usa', but then I noticed I was being specifically asked to construct a sentence using 'se'. Assuming a passive sentence was required, I put 'Además, se usó por Ken Follet', but was corrected with 'Además, Ken Follet la usó'. Surely, there is something not quite right here?
two different answers, i think...
i am having problems... estoy teniendo
i am dying of thirst... muero por que no estoy muriendo de sed???
elizabeth
The table formatting is bad so the third column can't be easily read. This problem exists in both chrome and safari.
I miss the rationale behind this. is this something to learn 'by heart'? as in, just learn these exceptions and you're good to go?... or is there some reasoning, eg. that without the accent it would be pronounced wrong.. this because of ?
Creo que la mujer no dice bien el "ir" de Irlanda.
Why???
I just figured out why I'm missing all the "usted" questions. When I go study verb charts, none of them even list the formal, so I have incorrectly using the second person plural.
But why? I've been told that it's hardly used, and if they don't even include it in the conjugation charts, . . . Really?
“Tiene algo que declarar/hacer” but “Tiene algo de comer” or sometimes “Tiene algo para comer.” How does one know which one to use when?
Why is hubiera casado con él wrong? The English doesn’t say “if she had gotten married to him”
Thanks, Shirley
'If Cristina had married him' - why is 'se hubiera casada' marked wrong?
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