"When I was young, I would eat sugar": comía or comería?In English, we often express the imperfect tense (a past habitual action) using the modal "would":
When I was young, I would eat sugar.
I can't find examples of the Spanish equivalent:
Cuando era joven, comería azúcar.
But just using the Spanish imperfect seems like it might be wrong:
Cuando era joven, comía azúcar.
... seems to translate literally as "When I was young, I was eating sugar", which doesn't seem to clarify that it was a habitual action rather than a one-time thing.
So, how would you say "When I was young, I would eat sugar" in Spanish?
After explaining the whole story (which happened "hoy") with preterito perfecto , why did we use Preterio Indefinido in the end?
: el profesor me felicitó.
I thought it would have been "me ha felicitado"
This lesson needs a lot of work. If you put expressions with "desde hace" and "hace" in an online translator they ALL come back with the same sentence in English. It's nearly impossible to tell when you're supposed to use "desde hace." More examples are needed. In fact I can't even tell from the lesson why I would ever use "desde hace" when "hace" works just fine for the same meaning. Moreover I talk to natives every single day and no one has corrected me to say "desde hace" instead of "hace." So maybe I'm crazy but maybe this lesson needs work.
Hola,
Would 'han estado viniendo' be an acceptable answer here?
Thanks,
Ben
Explain formal and informal
No entiendo porque se dice "al que" y no "que".
I understand the line ' .. para realizar el sueno de crear una marca de aceite oliva referente en calidad y sabor' to mean ' in order to realize the dream of making a brand of olive oil that is a benchmark in quality and flavour.
Why is there no other connection words between oliva and referente?
Thanks!
Can I say : algo de la bebida que está en la nevera?
I am sure that I am missing something that is right before my eyes, but I am going to ask for clarification anyway.
The lesson states that "cualquier is used BEFORE a singular noun."
Further it indicates Cualquiera must be preceded by un or una + and comes AFTER a singlular noun.
Lastly it references the plural of Cualqiera: cualesquiera. This has no requisite precedent (un/una).
Therefore, please explain if there is an exception as apparent in the following:
"La Unión estará de CUALESQUIERA derechos de aduana." This test question has no article precedent (un/una) and CUALESQUIERA appears BEFORE the noun (derechos de aduana); that is, it appears to act more in line with the singular CUALQUIER. So the question is: Is CUALESQUIERA the plural of Cualquier and not the plural of Cualquiera. Thank in advance for your help and response.
In English, we often express the imperfect tense (a past habitual action) using the modal "would":
When I was young, I would eat sugar.
I can't find examples of the Spanish equivalent:
Cuando era joven, comería azúcar.
But just using the Spanish imperfect seems like it might be wrong:
Cuando era joven, comía azúcar.
... seems to translate literally as "When I was young, I was eating sugar", which doesn't seem to clarify that it was a habitual action rather than a one-time thing.
So, how would you say "When I was young, I would eat sugar" in Spanish?
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