Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hi!

So in another Q&A, a commenter said "Ahora lo tengo", expressing that now they "understand it" or they "got it". Does that work in Spanish? I haven't found a lot about that on translation websites.

Thank you!

Hello Inma,

I have been having difficulty choosing between the two above, I have read the lesson and the questions here.

In the lesson it states "

If we use debido a que, it can never be followed just by a noun, it needs a phrase."

But in your answer to a question here, you mention "debido a que" needs a CLAUSE, which is slightly different from a phrase in the text book I use to understand these things.  In my book it says a PHRASE is any two or more words that don't contain a verb, but a CLAUSE needs to me able to stand by itself and be understood.  Would you take a look and see if PHRASE or CLAUSE is the most appropriate for this lesson?  Gracias.

This lesson needs a lot of work. If you put expressions with "desde hace" and "hace" in an online translator they ALL come back with the same sentence in English. It's nearly impossible to tell when you're supposed to use "desde hace." More examples are needed. In fact I can't even tell from the lesson why I would ever use "desde hace" when "hace" works just fine for the same meaning. Moreover I talk to natives every single day and no one has corrected me to say "desde hace" instead of "hace." So maybe I'm crazy but maybe this lesson needs work.

I can't find a translation of "librerias que bares"

Can I opt out of using the vosotros form?

Hola,

In a show a character says "La muerte de mi hija no iba ser una excepción."  Why is it "no iba ser" rather than "no iba a ser"?  What is the grammatical rule here?

Muchas gracias!