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Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,073 questions • 9,948 answers • 1,033,026 learners
In the test, the sentence 'No es verdad que ________ siempre los papeles al suelo.' gave the answer as 'tiremos', and marked 'tiramos' as incorrect. So does this mean that if you present something as true, you use the indicative, but if you say something is not true, or that the truth is a negative, you use the subjunctive? I thought, in saying it is not true, the sentence was presenting something as a fact, and therefore the indicative would apply.
Hello, why is suficiente after comida ? thanks !
2nd paragraph: Is there a lesson that discusses "que" used to mean "to be?"
I searched on "que" and got 1620 hits, so I scanned the first 60 and did not see "que" and "to be" in any lesson title.
Example in the quiz: ¿Cuanto tiempo has tardado en hacer ese proyecto?
Could that also be said as ¿Cuanto tiempo tardaste en hacer ese proyecto?
In other lessons, it’s been mentioned that Peninsular Spanish more commonly uses the Pretérito Perfecto where LatAm Spanish uses the Pretérito indefinido in similar contexts. Would that difference apply here?
I thought Ojalá had the accent on the last A.
A good exercise ! - but perhaps more at B2 rather than B1 level? - [no worries !]
However, I am a bit puzzled by two words (written here in bold letters) in "Aún así no importa como esté el tiempo" - I confess that I thought "cómo" should carry an accent, and that the first two words should be "Aun así ..." [> ? could they be translated as: "In any event, (it does not matter ...)"] - although I do realise that I might not have completely understood the meaning here of "aún".
Thank you Inma; thank you Shui - keep up the good work !
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Since I wrote that^ I've been chewing it over, and maybe I can now see an alternative translation which might fit the use of "como" with no accent > ? Something like: "Even with weather like that, there will be nothing to worry about". Perhaps both 'como' and 'cómo' are permissible, but with different meanings?
Hola,
1. None of the examples use 'usted' or 'ustedes'. Can you use those or is gustar just not used in a formal way?
2. What if I want to say something like "Sarah likes David"? Do I still have to include the indirect pronoun? And use "a xxx" for the name of the person doing the liking?
like: "David le gusta a Sarah"
Fred.
Great lesson! Is this construction used as much in Latin America as in Spain?
The first part of the sentence/question seems to be pronounced incorrectly in the recording.
One of the quiz examples translates They achieved the objectives for the year. using el preterito indefinido.
My first thought would be that this sentence would fall under the "in the same time period" rule and end up being el preterito perfecto (rule is at this link) link When to use the perfect tense versus the simple past (Perfecto vs Indefinido)
I am curious how I can tell (other than the hint given in the exercise) that this should be indefinido.
Thanks.
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