Spanish language Q&A Forum

The exceptions are both words that describe places of origin.  Is this a pattern or are these two examples that just happened to be place names.  I can see three possibilities:

1) When you have a place of origin adjective (from Spain, from Analusia) you always use gendered plural endings.

2) When you use gendered plural endings for adjectives ending in z or l you always use gendered plural endings

3) It's just a coincidence in the examples and neither 1 or 2 is a pattern.

Which one of these cases is closest to being correct?

Hi,

The translation given for the above sentence is 'They are saving money in order to buy a house.'

Money is not mentioned in the Spanish sentence, so has it been included in the translation for completeness or because it is inferred because something is being bought?

On an unrelated topic, could you please explain why all Spanish greetings such as 'Buenos Dias' are in the plural?

I am really enjoying learning Spanish using this site.  Others I have tried do not have the European pronuciation and sometimes use different words.

Thank you very much!

Best regards,

Colin

Hi, I have a question concerning this text: 

"at the beginning of the 17th century,"

a comienzos del siglo XVII, 

why is the plural used here and not the singular? 

What rules/lesson pertain to this?

Thank you, NIcole

In an A2 test the answer to "We gave the boys some sandwiches." was "nosotros dimos a los niños unos bocadillos".

I´m still learning indirect object pronouns, why doesn't this have "les" before dimos?

When do you use cada & when todo? I know they're interchangeable, but is that the case always?

I don't hear the S at the end of nuestros when the speaker says nuestroS recuerdos. Am I just failing to hear it, or is it in fact silent?

Hola Inma,

is there a difference between proceso y procedimiento or these words are interchangeable? 

Muchas gracias!

Ελισάβετ

Is ´"tecnologías nuevas" wrong? I thought nueva could be put before or after the noun?