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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,797 questions • 9,485 answers • 949,202 learners
some
You have the same mistake here as I pointed out in the lesson about tener + participio. You refer to it being similar to haber plus infinitive rather than participio
It's interesting to note that these two tense usages occur in English as well, e.g.
-- Oh, Albert's not at home. -- No, he was playing in a rugby match today, didn't he tell you?
-- What was the name, sir?
-- What were you asking for this painting?
-- Where were you going tomorrow?
Although I understand this lesson, the quiz question "What is the gender of the word ____" seems to vague. My understanding is that, with living things, the gender of the word is determined by the gender of the person/animal etc it refers to. Therefore, without a pronoun or phrase to clarify, it seems to me the correct answer should be "don't know". Obviously, except in some very rare situations, "both" seems inaccurate. Would it be more "on point" to ask thequestion using a phrase?
Y despues? Quiero saber que pasa con Angela y Roberto!
why is a future tense used in this sentence? could we use some of the past tenses instead?
In the quiz, I got the sentence
Antes de que tú digas nada, .... ( before you say anything )
Why is 'nada' here ? Can it be 'algo' ?
Another example from the other lesson is, though I don't remember the exact phase but it's like
No creo que hayan llegado todavía.
The original phase to be denied should be 'han llegado ya'. Again, why it changed to 'todavía' ?
I agree that whole expression has something negative, which hasn't happened yet. But I'm confused, because the phase in 'que' is totally affirmative.
So the expression in 'que' isn't independent from its use ? And how ?
Could we have used the infinitive for "... so I don't catch a cold" ? >> [rendering it as: "... para no coger un resfriado"].
My grammar book (by Butt and Benjamin) implies that 'por' might also be permissible here: i.e. "... por no coger un resfriado" - when it means "out of a wish or a desire to not catch a cold". Thus, I am wondering if [when a negative is involved] - "por no ... +infinitive" might actually be more common than "para no...+ infinitive" ?
Hola Inma,
For the last sentence of this passage, for my translation, I wrote, ¡Qué baile tan bonito! It was however marked as incorrect. Please could you explain why that is?
Gracias.
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