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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,821 questions • 9,537 answers • 954,179 learners
What am I missing? The lesson says that all three options are interchangeable, but the test result says that I got it almost correct when I chose "podía haber reducido" instead of "podría haber reducido."
I don't understand the construction of the sentence: You do not have my permission to talk to me this way
“no te consiento que me hables así” surely implies: I do not permit you to talk to me this way
Is this wrong:
Tú no tienes mi permiso para hablar conmigo así.
Is there a subtle difference implied between "asi" and "así que", or is the difference not so subtle?
In the third sentence, would it be correct to say: "Mi mejor amiga se apunta rápidamente a estos programas."? Does it take something away from the meaning by saying it the way I wrote it?
In the fourth sentence, would the sentence be correct if I eliminate "son las que"?
I'm not trying to take anything away from the "style" of the writing or from the grammatical importance of the use of these relative pronouns, but I just want to know if the use of these relative pronouns is more about a certain style of writing or if they are grammatically necessary.
Thank you.
Amy
Hola,
Are we saying here that the use of 'de' is optional?
Gracias,
Bear in mind, though, that when this is used with the verb tener or haber, then you can add "de". For example:
Esa historia no tiene nada de particular.No había nada de irónico en mis comentarios.
can we say ha venido a quedarse instead of using para?
In the above example the English translation refers to “she”, but am I correct, that there is nothing in the spanish
sentence that refers to a “she”? In fact, wouldn’t “le” normally default to the masculine?
I just reviewed the A1 lesson on veces/vez in which "sometimes" equals "algunas veces," but in examples above, "sometimes" equals "a veces." Is there a difference? Is "a veces" simply a more convenient way of saying "algunas veces?" Thank you.
Could we have used the infinitive for "... so I don't catch a cold" ? >> [rendering it as: "... para no coger un resfriado"].
My grammar book (by Butt and Benjamin) implies that 'por' might also be permissible here: i.e. "... por no coger un resfriado" - when it means "out of a wish or a desire to not catch a cold". Thus, I am wondering if [when a negative is involved] - "por no ... +infinitive" might actually be more common than "para no...+ infinitive" ?
I don't understand why the imperfect "Teníamos que llevar" is used and not the preterite. After studying again when to use imperfect, it would seem that this sentence is " We used to have to wear" or "We were having to wear", whereas "We had to wear" would be "Tuvimos que llevar". I can't see how the phrase "We had to wear protective hats" suggests it is ongoing and not completed. Obviously I'm wrong but I don't get it.
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