Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hola,

Re: Se la había comprado. 

How can one tell when reading or hearing this sentence, - if it was a standalone sentence -  that the “se” means  the plural “les” .

    For example if this sentence is entered in Reverso:  “Se la abía comprado.”  they translate it as “ I had bought it for              "him”.  So there’s no way to know from the sentence that it was bought for “plural someones”.  

Would this conundrum ever happen in real life, i.e. in converstion or writing, or would it always be clear from the preceding sentence?

Thank you for your patience,

Nicole

This is another quiz where one or more answers are correct is not noted.

The English translation says “We” for “acaban”. Should it be “they”?

This sentence sounds more like do not come back with that girl... could I say No vueulvas a esa chica?

You give:- Ha venido quejandose hasta hoy = He's been complaining until today.    Then:- Sospecho que desde aquel dia viene ocultamdome...- he's been hiding...

Same tense in English but different in Spanish.  Why, please?

ex. Comemos a las 5.