Spanish language Q&A Forum

The lesson explanation says: Antes de que and Antes que are always followed by the subjunctive.

But several ‘antes de” sample sentences aren’t in subjunctive: 

So “antes de” isn’t just a shortening of “antes de que” but follows different rules? 

Please explain. Thank you.

First, my dictionary has ser/estar(Spain) viudo, but I think it's even more complicated than a dialect issue. Here's a relevant discussion: https://forum.wordreference.com/threads/to-be-a-widow.596749/

Note that the discussion extends to several other relationship-like words such as soltero (but like viudo, these words are to my mind not relationship words, but rather civil/personal status words, which is why I think ser is often correct with them).

Hola Inma,

Two questions

1. Could "trasladar" be used instead of mudar?

2. Since the subject of the story has taken a decision to move [herself] to another city, would the pronominal form mudarse / trasladarse be appropriate?

Saludos

John

Just curious! Is there a difference in use in terms of formal/informal register with these two constructions, or is “tan...como” just more common? Thanks!

This is a great lesson; thank you.  I was told that I could use "mucho" after "Me gusta ...", for example, Me gusta mucho la música clásica.  Is that correct?  But, that I cannot use "Me encanta mucho..."  Is that correct  Could I express the idea of "really" loving something/doing something by repeating the verb, for example, "Me encanta encanta la música clásica?"  Thank you.

Hola,

This lesson is clear in distinguishing the Futuro Próximo, but is there a reason why none of the translations offered use the variation "I am going to buy a house.... / They are going to have a meal tonight.... etc.?

These would be common ways of expressing future arrangements in English, and happily distinguish it very clearly from the present progressive "I am buying a house" which doesn't quite capture the idea of a future arrangement. 

Is there some distinction that I'm not aware of?

Saludos. John

Hi, there. I am a native speaker. If anybody asks me where do I live, I will never repeat "I live in...". The natural answer is "In Barcelona". 

Ya tienen tres niñas, ojalá el próximo sea un niño.

vs.

Ya tienen tres niñas, ojalá el próximo será un niño.

Could both of these be correct?  Or would it have to be the former simply because of the need for the subjunctive mood following ojalá?  The english side of my brain wants the latter to be correct too... (something like "they already have three girls; hopefully the next one will be a boy.")

Hi, can I say una bolsa is a handbag as well as un bolso?