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5,747 questions • 9,366 answers • 926,856 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,747 questions • 9,366 answers • 926,856 learners
What is the rule regarding seasons of the year. When do we use the definite article el and when not. En el invierno/en invierno.
Thank you
Let us imagine the following scenario. There is a crowd of people at a cinema. what would the ticket controller use to invite those who had bought tickets in advance. haya or han comprado/reservado?
It might be worth mentioning that "Es lógico que" tends to require a subjunctive [or always does?] - because intuitively one might regard it as a certainty; i.e., we do need to learn and remember this.
The first person plural of present tense "to work" is nosotros trabajamos. The simple past is also nosotros trabajamos. Is the difference in translation based on context? I may be overthinking this, but say it's noon and my mom asks me "how are you guys doing?" "Como estan?" and I reply "nosotros trabajamos." Am I saying "we work (later) today" or "we worked (this morning)"? I guess I'm supposed to follow this up with "esta manana" or "despues" to avoid confusion?
My question is really a b1/b2 question, but I can't find where to put it.
if one doesn't know if something exists, isn't "haya" (subjunctive) more correct?
eg ¿Haya un piscina cerca de aquí?
“no se puede concentrar”, why se puede and not puede?
Thanks,
Shirley
The lesson explanation says: Antes de que and Antes que are always followed by the subjunctive.
But several ‘antes de” sample sentences aren’t in subjunctive:
Antes de empezar a bailar, había bebido mucho.Antes de haber empezado a bailar, había bebido muchoSo “antes de” isn’t just a shortening of “antes de que” but follows different rules?
Please explain. Thank you.
Hi, can I say una bolsa is a handbag as well as un bolso?
I understand your explanations perfectly, but I was surprised to learn that it was correct to use "mitad" and "medio" interchangeably when discussing physical space.
It seems to me that way back when I was first learning those concepts, I was told that medio meant middle and and mitad meant half, and that it was an error to confuse the two. Is this a case of one of those "errors so common among native speakers that now it's not wrong anymore" ? Or was I taught incorrectly to begin with?
Thanks for the insight!
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