Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,646 questions • 9,014 answers • 876,455 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,646 questions • 9,014 answers • 876,455 learners
I understand your explanations perfectly, but I was surprised to learn that it was correct to use "mitad" and "medio" interchangeably when discussing physical space.
It seems to me that way back when I was first learning those concepts, I was told that medio meant middle and and mitad meant half, and that it was an error to confuse the two. Is this a case of one of those "errors so common among native speakers that now it's not wrong anymore" ? Or was I taught incorrectly to begin with?
Thanks for the insight!
Hola Inma, - hopefully you will be seeing this or it can be forwarded to you :)
I was glad to hear your voice. Hope you and yours are well and the team are all well.
1) I was interested in finding out why the author chose to use the verb "estar" instead of "ser" for
"It's delicious" regarding "harira" It seems to me this would always be "delicious"!
(1-1: I wish I could copy/paste here, but for some reason can't. Is there a way I could do that?
Also I like to keep track of my lessons and errors and notes etc.)
Gracias,
Nicole
The test asked to translate "I like white wine" to Spanish, but indicated "Me gusta el vino blanco" was the correct answer. The English sentence seemed unspecific to me, as though the speaker was making a general statement about a category of wine they liked. To add an article seems to imply the speaker likes a specific kind of wine ("I like the white wine"). Is this the same implication in Spanish? Could one say "me gusta vino blanco"? Or is an article always required, and unspecific preferences would require "un/una"?
Thank you.
Can’t “vamos a continuar derecho” be used instead of recto? And aren’t carretera and autopista the same thing?
Thanks.
Why is the answer documental not documentario?
I thought the answer were plural, muchas for feminine. However, the answer is mucho. May I know what is the reason.
The lesson says: "We use the construction no + verbo + ningún (a, os, as) to say any." When do you use ningún vs nada for "not any"?
I have read through the explanations and have tested, but I really can't not differentiate the type of sentence between the two uses or concepts. Is there any other way to explain this, or some cue that might help me?
Thanks!
Ella ________ saber la verdad.
With the correct answer being:
She might know the truth
In another lesson the future simple also implies ´maybe/chance of´, right?
If estar is to be used with a location, why use ser to discuss where one is from?
Find your Spanish level for FREE
Test your Spanish to the CEFR standard
Find your Spanish level