The lesson explanation says: Antes de que and Antes que are always followed by the subjunctive.
But several ‘antes de” sample sentences aren’t in subjunctive:
So “antes de” isn’t just a shortening of “antes de que” but follows different rules?
Please explain. Thank you.
Antes que and antes de que are not the same as antes de. Verbs following antes de are in the infinitive because the verb follows a proposition.
There is a lesson on this which you can refer to. Using antes de /después de [noun/infinitive] for before/after [something/doing something]
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