Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hola!

why (mi) in (para soprender a mi familia) is preceded by (a)? and what does it mean? 

One of the lessons included things that were happening in the past but are still ongoing. Instead of the present perfect, it included the present tense and then something else (it was not this lesson). Could you tell me where that lesson is or explain it to me? Thanks.

In this exercise, the adjective "gran" has been placed BEFORE the noun "siesta". To me, that suggests that the nap was "great", "wonderful", "marvelous", etc. as opposed to big, (i.e., long) in which case, I think that the adjective "grande" would be used and placed BEHIND the noun "siesta". However, in the English translation, I think I remember the word "big" being used (I'm not absolutely positive about this). Would you care to comment on this issue?

Hola Inma: Regarding El Preterito Perfecto, I don't know what you mean when you say the speaker sees herself inside that same timeframe. For example: “¿Vosotras pudisteis reservar ese hotel tan barato?” In what way does the speaker see herself inside that timeframe? Likewise, for El Preterito Indefinido, in what way does the speaker see herself outside the timeframe, ex: “No pudimos conseguir entradas para el concierto”?

Hi,

In the above sentence estaba has been translated as 'I' but could it equally be 'he' or 'she'?

If so, how could one make it explicit?

Thanks.

Colin

Hi,

I'm learning Spanish to keep up with my family (mixed origins from spain, latin america, south america, etc.) and I've noticed that I don't quite understand when the people I'm talking to prefer that I use formal or informal.

Are there any general guidelines or standards as for when one is more appropriate? Like if it's someone who is your senior or based on how close you are to each other? Or is this maybe not as big a deal these days as it might have been in the past?

Thanks, Dawn.

This is not hyperbole.
I have had much experience with more than 10 other language learning websites and I can testify to the fact that this is the only one that makes fluency an achievable 

goal for language lovers.

James

?inmantada    o    imantada?

spanish dict no conoce "inmantada"

Hi Inma,

The test questions given at the end of this section are as follows:

1.       ________ poner el despertador. He [accidentally] forgot to set the alarm clock.HINT: Use a construction with the verb "olvidar" that expresses an "unintentional action"

Correct answer given: Se me ha olvidado

2.       ________ poner el despertador.He [accidentally] forgot to set the alarm clock.HINT: Use a construction with the verb "olvidar" that expresses an "unintentional action"

Correct answer given: Se le olvidó

Both examples feature an action represented by a verb that follows a form of olvidar. This is apparently an example of the accidental “se”. But the examples in this lesson use a different structure. The object forgotten is the subject of the sentence and olvidarse is conjugated with that in mind. It is explicitly stated that the verb is conjugated in the third person plural “to agree with the subject .”  That is not the case on either test item. Plus the test “hints” given are not useful for two reasons:  1) They ask that you use the verb “olvidar” instead of “olvidarse” (misleading) and 2) it says that the verb expresses an “unintentional action”; which is true of all forgetting , no? However, I think I could have figured out what was wanted If the sentence structure of the test item were not different from the lesson (e.g. in the lesson the thing forgotten was the subject of the verb).

I was just marked wrong when I answered a test question with 'hemos sido'. I was told that the correct answer was 'hemos sidos.'  There is no sidos in the conjugation that I can find.  What is this?