Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hello, thanks for this excellent tool for learning Spanish!

My question is about the use of pero in a second sentence.  Should this be explained as a second clause rather than a second sentence since the examples use one sentence?

I'm thinking they should sound the same in both peninsular and Latin American Spanish. If that's true then why the spelling change?

The quiz question I got for this lesson was:

“No entiendo (qué) te molesta tanto de mí.”

Is there a difference between saying the sentence above and saying “No entiendo lo que te molesta tanto de mí.” ?

Why not "vamos a hacer" in the example. Is there a lesson I missed about this that you can refer me to?

If there can be multiple answers, it would be nice if the lesson indicated that.

A ella le molestaba que nosotras ________ con su novio.It bothered her that we had spoken to her boyfriend.HINT: Conjugate "hablar" in El Pretérito Pluscuamperfecto de SubjuntivoHi all, In the above phrase... There is nothing hypothetical. It's a fact that the girl was upset that some people spoke to her boyfriend.. It should be indicative in my opinion... Pls help

Hola,

This seems to translate as "in order to read it [to myself]." Is there a reason why both direct and indirect objects are used, and the direct object is not sufficient - i.e. leerlo??

Saludos

John

What are the other words for adios. Like other slangs which are used in other Spanish speaking countries. Like chao. Are there any other words?