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Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,835 questions • 9,552 answers • 955,455 learners
Is it common in Spanish to use the first name of a person and the formal form together?
In the first sample sentence above, what is the function of 'lo'? There are 4 such examples on this page.
These verbs all mean "to turn", but are they the same?
Thank u so much
In the lesson "Use Hace + length of time + que + El Indefinido " we have this example:
-¿Dónde está Jaime? -Hace dos horas que se fue.
-Where is Jaime? -He left two hours ago.
In the lesson "When to use the perfect tense versus the simple past in European Spanish (Perfecto vs Indefinido)" we have this example:
Note: If you talk about time ago using hace then the tense will still depend on whether the event in question was 'today' or another day:
Lo he visto hace 2 minutos.
I saw him two minutes ago.
Are they both correct? It they are, that tells me that when using "Hace + length of time + que + El Indefinido", we could either of these?
Jim Kurczewski
I got this incorrect: Translate: It is ten to nine. My answer: Son las diez meno nueve. Correct Answer: Son las nueve diez. Isn't that 9:10, rather than what the question is asking
I think it would also be helpful to have examples with the conjugates that still have 'z', so that we know how it sounds and how to pronounce it correctly.
Thanks a lot,Shirley
Hi,
In the above sentence estaba has been translated as 'I' but could it equally be 'he' or 'she'?
If so, how could one make it explicit?
Thanks.
Colin
It would seem that "foggy" is an adjective and therefore está would be used instead of hay. This one is really confusing for me.
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