Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hi there, 

I’ve seen this use of que a few times but can’t find any explanations for the rules.

For example- Hay tantas cosas que aprender. 

Hay muchísimas cosas que hacer.

I know que can be used as to/than in comparisons but I don’t understand the use of que here.

"Alfredo se quedó tan sorprendido que se puso pálido"

Por qué no es "se puso tan sorprendido"? En la explicación de grammática 'Using convertirse en / ponerse / hacerse / quedarse´, se dice que se debería usar ´quedar´ por los cambios permenantes, y poner por los temporales.

¡Hola!

Let's have a look at the examples:

1) 

- Sorry, I couldn't come yesterday, I was a bit busy

- You couldn't have come anyway,  roads were blocked because of the snowfall

2) 

- I saw Maria yesterday

- You can't have seen her. She left for Bahamas three days ago  

How can I express these ideas in Spanish by means of the verb poder and perfect infinitive?

Regards, 

Alexander

Hola,

Would it be possible to substitute Concurso and Recordar in the paragraph?

Kind Regards

John

One thing I find problematic (and frustrating even) about the dictation exercises is the intonation of the voice after punctuation (e.g., commas, periods, question marks, and even exclamation points) is highly inconsistent with natural speech. For example, typically speakers pause briefly after a comma, and the voice is raised sightly (or even demonstrably) after a question has been posed. These common features of natural/normal speech are too often absent and I think that is a major flaw in Kwiziq dictation exercises.

Pati Ecuamiga

I have seen a lot of sentences like the examples below:

1. Todavía no han llegado, su avión debe haberse retrasado.

They haven't arrived yet, their flight must have had a delay.

2. Cristina ha debido de ser una buena profesora, sus estudiantes le han comprado flores.

Cristina must have been a good teacher, her students bought her some flowers.

I respect that Spanish uses punctuation differently, in some cases, from the way English uses punctuation.  However, the Spanish sentences and the English translations use a comma to separate the two sentences in each example (these examples were taken from a quiz on Kwiziq).  For the Spanish, I've checked RAE and I cannot understand why these two sentences are joined by a comma when it seems they should be separated by a period or a semicolon (or even possibly adding a connector or conjunction to join them).  For the English translation, in American English we would have to somehow separate these two complete sentences with some form of punctuation (period or semicolon).  I have also seen similar constructions in other writing, but not usually in newspapers or academic writing.  If you could provide an explanation, I would appreciate it. Thank you.

The Larousse Spanish Dictionary shows:  -3. (en frases) ¡a mí qué! so what?, why should I care?; para mí: (yo creo) as far as I'm concerned, in my opinion; por mí: as far as I'm concerned; por mí, no hay inconveniente it's fine by me

How do we get to the: para mí: I have a feeling that ?

Even after the lengthy explanation it's still unclear.

Por mí que cierren el cine. why should I care if the close down the cinema =Por mí si ellos cierren el cine?

No?

I had always understood that using the simple present tense or the compound "going to do something" worked exactly the same in English as Spanish. Something planned or intended for the future.  (Not the present continuous)

All  the above sentences mean exactly the same thing.