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6,013 questions • 9,827 answers • 1,012,987 learners
Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,013 questions • 9,827 answers • 1,012,987 learners
¿Tienen el mismo significado "está por llover" y "está para llover"? ¿Hay algún matiz?
Hola
1.Mi madre prepara el almuerzo a la una y media.My mum prepares lunch at half past one.
Do you have to say "el almuerzo" instead of just "almuerzo"?
2.Salgo de casa a las ocho en punto.I leave the house at eight o'clock precisely.
why is it "casa" instead of "la casa"?
Gracias,Fred
I don't understand why naranja is plural in one example and singular in the other.
Puedes coger las flores naranja del jardín.You can take the orange flowers from the garden.Estas flores naranjas son muy bonitas.These orange flowers are very pretty.Hola,
Where there is a double vowel, such as leer, is the accent always placed on the second of the two vowels, ie leérmelo, etc?
Gracias,
Is soler+infinite geographically universal in Spanish-speaking countries or more common in some countries than in others? ¡Gracias en antemano para los insights!
1. I find it difficult to think in terms of the Imperfect subjunctive in examples which allude to an event in the future, e.g. "Ojalá nosotros viniésemos el año que viene"... Could we also say "Ojalá nosotros vengamos el año que viene"?
2. [A comment rather than a question]: I personally prefer the "-s-" option for constructing the Imperfect Subjunctive because there is less chance of confusing it with a future construction.
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I have seen “sometimes” translated as a veces. Is that wrong? Should it always be algunas veces?
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