Spanish language Q&A Forum

I have a question about reflexive verbs. In general I understand the concept, and I in general I know when to recognize the verbs. What I have trouble with is knowing when to use them in a sentence. For example take these two sentence:

Now I use the Google translate app and one of these sentences uses a reflexive verb and its pronoun and one does not. I don't understand the difference. I understand "I bathe myself in the morning" is how the translation would be from Spanish to English. But why does "I walk in the morning" not translate as "I walk myself in the morning". After all I'm not walking the dog or walking somebody else, I'm walking myself. Or is this just a matter of the Google translate app being incorrect??

Thank you!

I have just started learning about Preterito indefinido and found that one question in the test  required a preterito imperfecto answer which I have not yet learned. It is rather confusing .

¿Bajo las AFFIRMATIVE COMMANDS, no debería ser "tráelos"?

The Larousse Spanish Dictionary shows:  -3. (en frases) ¡a mí qué! so what?, why should I care?; para mí: (yo creo) as far as I'm concerned, in my opinion; por mí: as far as I'm concerned; por mí, no hay inconveniente it's fine by me

How do we get to the: para mí: I have a feeling that ?

Even after the lengthy explanation it's still unclear.

Por mí que cierren el cine. why should I care if the close down the cinema =Por mí si ellos cierren el cine?

No?

What difference would it make if I used esté instead of estuviera?

"Algunas compradoras se gastan mucho dinero en las rebajas." means...

Why not "Algunas compradoras gastan mucho dinero..." There is no passive voice here; "Some shoppers" is the subject of this sentence.

This problem arises often in my readings of Spanish, and I would love to understand it. Is this a passive, reflexive, or accidental use of "se"?