Spanish language Q&A Forum

In a textbook a sentence was given as:

“ Es muy gordo; come más que dos hombres ordinaries.”

My question is why is it not más de because of the “dos” being a quantitative factor.  Is it a comparison?

I understand that pronouns can be left out and the subject is determined by the context of the sentence.  I am not very familiar with Castillian, so can "vosotros" be left out in the above sentence and still be grammatically correct?

Please explain when we should use "Yo soy " and "Yo estas" - in what contexts??

THank you

Hi, For some reason when trying to get the video, it says Video unavailable.

However, I was able to see other videos i.e Súbeme la radio - Enrique Iglesias etc.

Nicole

Hello, I also fell into the trap of "puedes ver publicidad" but it was not shown as being an acceptable answer, 10 months after the last reply here.

Yes .. .I have the same question. John

Is this common usage in both spoken and written Spanish? Is it more common in Spain than in Latin America? (i.e. Will there be raised eyebrows if I use it in Mexico, like there often are when I use "cover?") Thanks!

Why do we say "pasear al perro" instead of "pasear el perro". Why is the "al" used?

actually to pocas (if plural- pacientes)