Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hi, is there some kind of rule with the verbs that stem change to ue or is it just a case of learning and remembering which ones do? 

Thanks :) 

Only the first word is being spoken in this example.

The confusing part is not se vs le for me but "to" vs "for." Your explanation was that an indirect object means to him/it, etc., but the example is "for him", which is very different in English. I think this needs to be explained. When I speak I usually try to clarify with "para mi" for "for me", but it may not be right.

Tom

As far as I can see, the text doesn’t discuss ‘hasta’ which is listed as an option in the answers but marks as wrong. My dictionary seems to have some examples where ‘hasta’ is used for movement towards a place. What is the distinction?

It's translated let me tell you. So why isn't there a me before let?

Is it possible to bold the accent marks or make them in red?  I can't really tell if it is a dot over a letter or an accent mark.

Purpose:

Te regalo mi pulsera nueva con tal de que me dejes en paz.
I [will] give you my new bracelet so that you leave me alone.

Condition:

Te regalo mi pulsera nueva con tal de que me dejes en paz.
I [will] give you my new bracelet as long as you leave me alone.

I think I saw an earlier lesson when you use bastante and other words only in a singular form. But I can't find the other lesson. Hopefully you can direct me to the lesson :)