Spanish language Q&A Forum

Here are two phrases from the text, both giving advice.

1 Seguramente sabrás que en primavera deberías consumir espárragos trigueros, guisantes y habas.  NO ARTICLE

2 Si fuera tú, pondría ingredientes como la lechuga, las endibias, las espinacas, etc.  ARTICLES.

In answering a previous question about articles, Sylvia wrote:

In summary, the choice of using or not using the definite article depends on the linguistic function of the phrase within the sentence, whether it denotes a specific entity (requiring the article) or describes a general quality or manner (where the article may be omitted).

Am I correct that the use of 'como' in phrase 2 triggers a specific entity and thus the article?

Gracias

There seems to be a lot of doubt in this sentence. What would trigger only the subjunctive?

Thank you. K

Quiz question: Ojalá ________ menos egoísmo en el mundo. ?

I wish there were less selfishness in the world.

(HINT: Use "haber" in El Imperfecto de Subjuntivo)

In the above I answered “qué hubiera” and got it wrong, where the correct answer was “hubiera.” 

However, in a separate section, there was an explanation that “qué can be added after ojalá without changing the meaning.”

Can you clarify whether my “qué hubiera” answer should have been correct?

Te ________ hasta que me aburrí y me fui.I was waiting for you until I got bored and left.

Twice now I have entered 'estaba' but the correct answer is shown to be 'estuve'. I thought that when an action is either interrupted or where there is no specific beginning or end, it's the imperfect. Can you please clarify? Thank you.

I have a question about reflexive verbs. In general I understand the concept, and I in general I know when to recognize the verbs. What I have trouble with is knowing when to use them in a sentence. For example take these two sentence:

Now I use the Google translate app and one of these sentences uses a reflexive verb and its pronoun and one does not. I don't understand the difference. I understand "I bathe myself in the morning" is how the translation would be from Spanish to English. But why does "I walk in the morning" not translate as "I walk myself in the morning". After all I'm not walking the dog or walking somebody else, I'm walking myself. Or is this just a matter of the Google translate app being incorrect??

OK.  I get it...I think!  It is because the first clause expresses "emotion".   Therefore it seems to be more a function of formality, a rule, not a matter of doubt. Because, I could be in fact happy that you travelled the world. Right?  Or, is there another way to convey that "I am pleased that..." as fact and not use the subjunctive?

I appologize if I appear to be running in circles, and chasing my tail! I greatly appreciate your imput!