Spanish language Q&A Forum

I wonder if there is a discussion of the pronunciation of these two words. Depending on the speaker, they sound the same to me. I have noticed in some accents in the north, there's a slight "l" sound in the ll, and even my late great uncle (from the north of Spain) had explained to me that this is a thing, but also he explained this to me a long, long ago and I just want to know if I'm hearing things correctly or if my brain's making it up. ¡Gracias!

According to the kwiz, there are 2 correct answers to the question:

haya ganado ( my answer) 

ganara ( imperfect subjunctive)

The page on the subjunctive does not address using these subjunctives interchangeably. I learned that when the subjunctive trigger is in the present tense ( no está seguro) and the event being considered is in the past ( won the competition), the present perfect subjunctive is called for. Do you have a lesson the the distinction?

Note that the construction tal vez (maybe) accepts the indicative and the subjunctive moods with no change in meaning.

What do you mean with the "maybe" after tal vez? 

Hola,

In the sentence 'if my wife sees me dressed like that...', is the subjunctive vea acceptable since it hasn't actually happened yet?

Gracias,

Benhur