Spanish language Q&A Forum

Shouldn't it be se viste instead of viste?

Hola,

I was wondering what the English term is for "madre de día".  I have searched online and didn't find anything that would fit well.

I believe it would be "day care worker"?  

Thank you and I hope you and yours and the team and their families are all doing well in these difficult times.

Nicole

How long must I wait to re- take a quiz? I started low because I wanted a recap. I have gotten into bad habits but am understood. I missed a question on the last quiz and 10 minutes later I can not try again to move on? Really?

i read from one of the question asked before in one of the grammar lesson, and it is confirmed that llamar is a transitive verb and takes direct object but comes with a preposition A because it is personal a. llamar + a + alguien.

But then i also came across llamar a la puerta for example. why is there a preposition A?

or did i get it wrong that it is not personal A but a fixed expression with llamar + a + any direct objects?

voy a llamar a Juan = voy a llamarlo, voy a llamar a la puerta = voy a llamarla.

But i did come across sentences that do not use preposition a for llamar.

le llamo idiota a juan  - i called juan idiot. is this correct?

Other than calling people directly like telephoning or shouting for them, we can also call them names. is this where there wont be preposition A?

sorry for my errors as i am still not familiar with using the llamar verb.

Hola,

I had never come across ‘hacer caso’ until now. From now on, whilst practising speaking Spanish to/with my daughter I’ll use this. It will be very useful since she never ‘pays attention’ and ignores me a lot whilst spending numerous hours on Instagram etc. :) 

Another phrase that I’m unfamiliar with is ‘dares cuenta’ which is used in this reader- ...me doy cuenta...  Am I correct in saying that ‘hacer caso’ and ‘darse cuenta’ are phrasal verbs? Do you cover phrasal verbs anywhere in Kwiziq? 

Gracias y saludos 

Newbie here: I’ve always been told that Spanish accent is usually on the penultimate vowel, and only the exceptions need an explicit tilde mark. 

However, there are conjugations, like actuéis where the accent mark is on the penultimate vowel. I would have thought that the accent wasn’t needed anymore. Any place I could go to with a fuller explanation?

Thanks.