Spanish language Q&A Forum

Can I use tener ganas with past and future tenses?

Please, why is este marked wrong and esta given as the correct one? I can't work out why foto (masc) has esta (female) and not este. Is it because its BarcelonA?

And why sacamos and not tomamos?

Gracias.

The question is

Será mejor que ________ sin apostar dinero.
It's better to play without gambling money.
HINT: Conjugate "jugar" in El Presente Subjuntivo.

The answer given is “juguemos”. Why not “juguéis” , “jueguen” , “juegue”  or “juegues”?

Hi, I was a bit surprised to see this use of "gustar" as none of the books I have mention this usage i.e. Barron's 501 verbs, shows only that this verb is  used in the third person, etc.    Would it be a Iberian usage?  I am in Canada and study Latin American Spanish [looking forward to that distinction in your program:) -- any news on that?]

Thank you. Nicole

Hola,

I thought assumption about the past (must have + verb) was expressed by means of DEBE (Deber in El Presented) + Infinitivo Compuesto, however the following examples refute it:

Los chicos han debido de beber bastante porque huelen a alcohol.
They boys must have drunk quite a lot as they smell of alcohol.

El tren debió de llegar sobre las cuatro y media.
The train must have arrived at about four thirty.

Could you please clarify this point, because I'm feeling a bit confused