Spanish language Q&A Forum

"It can be used in the singular, for example se tarda, se tardó or in the plural, for example se tardan, se tardaron. Se tardó dos horas en llegar. = Se tardaron dos horas en llegar. It took two hours to arrive."

So both examples mean precisely the same thing? Is there a situation where the meaning would change?

Luis told me where he had gone on holiday. : Luis me dijo ___ había ido de vacaciones.

The stated answer is “dónde” (with an accent), but this usage seems to be that of a relative pronoun. What am I missing? Why is it “dónde” (with an accent)

Hola,

I had never come across ‘hacer caso’ until now. From now on, whilst practising speaking Spanish to/with my daughter I’ll use this. It will be very useful since she never ‘pays attention’ and ignores me a lot whilst spending numerous hours on Instagram etc. :) 

Another phrase that I’m unfamiliar with is ‘dares cuenta’ which is used in this reader- ...me doy cuenta...  Am I correct in saying that ‘hacer caso’ and ‘darse cuenta’ are phrasal verbs? Do you cover phrasal verbs anywhere in Kwiziq? 

Gracias y saludos 

I [incorrectly] made "mejor" plural - to agree with "they" - by writing: "Eran aún mejores que en mis sueños". [Or could it also be correct with "mejores"?]

Perhaps we have to regard "mejor" as an adverb here, not as an adjective - so we should not make it plural - despite the fact that (in English) it looks like a complement of the verb "eran".

My grammar book (by Butt and Benjamin) seems to confirm that^ by giving the example "Aquí estamos mejor" = "We're better [off] here".

It seems that we need to be careful in deciding whether a particular word in Spanish should be treated as an adverb rather than an adjective. In particular, we should avoid the temptation of trying to judge it according to its grammatical context in English. [A well known example of that, is of course "Está bien"].

slimness and weight are NOT permanent things. Sus padres estan bastante delgado ya, pero en seis meses tal vez estaran gordos. No?

Can I use tener ganas with past and future tenses?

A great article which I thoroughly enjoyed and will watch and read a few more times. Why was the word "desgustar" used as: "bebidas para desgustar"? Is it an entendre doble somehow? Maybe disfrutar?

I had this question in a test and got it right, but I thought I read somewhere that the subjunctive is suppose to have a change of subject, but it is not true in this case (creo=yo, sepa=yo).  Can you help to clarify?  Thank you.