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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,085 questions • 9,974 answers • 1,042,543 learners
I know that this construction (using cómo si + indicative to express indifference) is common in colloquial speech. My question: Is this a currently officially excepted grammatical construction by the RAE? I found one source that says that the RAE says that this construction is common but must be considered incorrect. But I am not sure if I’m looking at the most appropriate or most updated source.
I would translate this as "Take any dish."
Coge cualquier plato.
I would translate this exactly the same way.
Under what circumstances would one choose to use either one?
Are these words indeterminate and/or invariable and what are the meanings or other examples of indeterminate and invariable?
If I wrote:
¿Puede venir cualquiera a mi fiesta?
Can anyone come to my party? Would that be incorrect?
Wouldn't "Le gustaría explicarme..." be just as polite a question as "Podría explicarme..."?
Are the ending masculine -os or feminine -as based on the noun in the sentence or the adjective of the sentence?
If we use hechas, doesn't that mean "Why do you do that there?" As in, "Whenever we go to my parents' house, you always sulk in the corner and refuse to talk to anyone. Why do you do that there?"
I believe hechas is just as valid as echas, but it was marked incorrect. Please either accept this answer or remove this question from the quizzes.
Por qué se usa "las" en "[la juventud] es un lienzo en blanco esperando ser pintado con las que son consideradas experiencias inolvidables y valiosas lecciones de vida"?
(https://spanish.kwiziq.com/my-languages/spanish/tests/overview/3947371)
Note that the last example above expressing it's about to rain, could also use por with the same meaning: "Está por llover"
Hola, what is the difference between estar por and estar para. Muchas gracias, shirley.
Las chicas ________ el desfile de moda. The girls saw the fashion show. (HINT: Conjugate “ver” in El Pretérito Perfecto) without the hint, would vieron be more appropriate? i'm having a hard time differentiating, and would not think preterito perfecto was correct here. additionally, la costurera ha deshecho todos los puntos de la falda - why wouldn't this also just be deshizo? (preterite)? there isn't really anything connecting it to the present ?
Could you differentiate the usage of tras rather than después (de) in daily use please?
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