Spanish language Q&A Forum

As stated by one example, "Yo conocí a Susana hace 6 meses."

However, as stated by another, "Hablé con Clara hace 2 horas." 

Why didn't the second example utilize "a"

Is it because "con" had already been used?

Some of the English answers in this exercise use the past tense in English, and some use the past perfect tense, por ejemplo:

We hope that you HAVE finished it on time.  NOT We hope that you finished it on time.  

I hope that you booked the restaurant in advance.  NOT I hope that you HAVE booked the restaurant in advance. 

In English, there may be very little difference, if any, in the meaning of the sentence, but I wonder why in some examples, "have" is used and in others, it is omitted.

Hola : ) Una pregunta: Se puede usar 'durante' en vez de desde hacía, como en la frase siguiente?

No hacía ejercicio _durante_ dos años cuando empecé a hacer footing.

O por ejemplo, sería incorrecto decir: No había hecho ejercicio durante años?

nos sentamos en una banqueta, de lo más felices mientras la música....

In the lesson on emphasis all the examples use a masculine singular adjective ( I put de lo más contento ) but was marked wrong. Is it really wrong?

Gracias

I am a bit frustrated with this lesson.  I guess my question is this: with my limited (A1) knowledge of Spanish, how am I supposed to know "that sometimes the feminine and masculine forms are the same" when repeatedly the test gives adjectives I do not (yet) know in Spanish?  

For example, placid.  I do not KNOW how to say placid in Spanish, thus how can I know if I should use the feminine adjective form or simply add mente?  The assumption of adjective knowledge doesn't work unless, as is sometimes done in the test, you GIVE the adjective form in the test question; example: Los coches son rápidos: van rápidamente.   In this example test question it is easy to understand rápidos (masculine form) will change to the feminine because I can SEE rápidos!  The frustrates me to get wrong when it seems to be testing me more on knowing a large range of adjectives in Spanish more than the specific assignment of adding the "ly" form! I don't see my scores getting better based on the lesson given.

A valuable lesson! But can you please explain the difference in the use of "hace" and "desde hace"? It seems that "hace" means "ago":

Lo compré hace tres semanas. - I bought it three weeks ago. 

And that "desde hace" means "for": Lo tengo desde hace tres semanas. - I’ve had it for three weeks.

However I keep coming across examples where either "desde hace" or "hace" can mean both "for" or "ago". Does it depend on context as to which one means "for" or "ago" or are they interchangeable?

It seems that translation is dependent upon interpretation:

"que no saldrá del cajón y le saldrán telerañas" translates as "which won't leave the drawer and it leaves with cobwebs" BUT is interpreted to mean "which will stay in the drawer gathering cobwebs". 

I note that in Mexico, official documents have to be translated "literally" but in the case above, that really wouldn't make much sense! How far can one go in interpreting versus translating? 

xx

In Spanish the word Pachamama is their way of telling if it's a masculine or feminine word.

?Por qué usas "muchAs frutAs" (género femenino) al principio de esta cuenta, pero al fin dices que "La guayaba es otrO de lOs frutOs en temporada"(género masculino)?

!gracias!

The lesson states the following: 

Cierto can also mean "verdadero/seguro" (true/truthful/sure/reliable). In this case, used with a noun, the adjective cierto is placed after the noun. For example: