Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hello Kwiziq team .

I have a question concerning the use of the subjunctive mood.

1. No porque sea gratis significa que me lo vaya a comer todo 

2. No porque sea gratis me lo voy a comer todo.

Are both phrases correct ? What is the nuance when you opt to use the subjunctive or the indicative mood.

Thank you in advance. Your answers are always helpful in solving our grammatical doubts  

Why is this part in present tense! Doesn't it refer to the concert - which took place yesterday? Is it used to make this part more lively, more immediate?But somehow it is strange for me to "jump"  into the present tense!

Looking forward to an explanation!

Saludos!

Lucia

Así que, es una broma o no? 

in the text...

´Me ha invitado al teatro varias veces, y se ha ofrecido a pagar para los dos.... ´

Question is....      Is ´se ha ofrecido´ a typo of ´me ha ofrecido´?

gracias de antemano

When I read into this, I found it a little confusing, we would actually say, he was meeting the lawyer tomorrow, to mean, He is meeting the lawyer tomorrow. 

I think we say it as it was a decision taken before the present or the future. So for once a literal translation would work?

There's a question about how we went to an Indian restaurant and ate everything because it was very rich. The thing they're eating is "food," but the answer wanted you to use "todo." They had it agree with the adjective of rich, but there's nothing that indicates a masculine noun.